Search

Summary Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) represents a heterogeneous group of rare disorders. There is considerable morbidity and mortality as a result of non-infectious complications, and this presents clinicians with management challenges. Clinical guidelines to support the management of CVID are urgently required. The UK Primary Immunodeficiency Network and the British Society for Immunology funded a joint project to address this. A modified Delphi Survey was conducted for the assessment, diagnosis and treatment of the non-infectious blood, respiratory, gut and liver complications of CVID. A steering group of 10 consultant immunologists and one nurse specialist developed and reviewed the survey statements and agreed the final recommendations. In total, 22 recommendations and three areas for research were developed.

Supplemental Digital Content is available in the text., Background: Approximately 25% of patients with pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) have been found to harbor rare mutations in disease-causing genes. To identify missing heritability in PAH, we integrated deep phenotyping with whole-genome sequencing data using Bayesian statistics. Methods: We analyzed 13 037 participants enrolled in the NBR study (NIHR BioResource—Rare Diseases), of which 1148 were recruited to the PAH domain. To test for genetic associations between genes and selected phenotypes of pulmonary hypertension, we used the Bayesian rare variant association method BeviMed. Results: Heterozygous, high impact, likely loss-of-function variants in the kinase insert domain receptor (KDR) gene were strongly associated with significantly reduced transfer coefficient for carbon monoxide (posterior probability=0.989) and older age at diagnosis (posterior probability=0.912). We also provide evidence for familial segregation of a rare nonsense KDR variant with these phenotypes. On computed tomographic imaging of the lungs, a range of parenchymal abnormalities were observed in the 5 patients harboring these predicted deleterious variants in KDR. Four additional PAH cases with rare likely loss-of-function variants in KDR were independently identified in the US PAH Biobank cohort with similar phenotypic characteristics. Conclusions: The Bayesian inference approach allowed us to independently validate KDR, which encodes for the VEGFR2 (vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2), as a novel PAH candidate gene. Furthermore, this approach specifically associated high impact likely loss-of-function variants in the genetically constrained gene with distinct phenotypes. These findings provide evidence for KDR being a clinically actionable PAH gene and further support the central role of the vascular endothelium in the pathobiology of PAH.

Background The International Consensus on Antinuclear Antibody (ANA) Patterns (ICAP) has recently proposed nomenclature in order to harmonize ANA indirect immunofluorescence (IIF) pattern reporting. ICAP distinguishes competent-level from expert-level patterns. A survey was organized to evaluate reporting, familiarity, and considered clinical value of ANA IIF patterns. Methods Two surveys were distributed by European Autoimmunity Standardization Initiative (EASI) working groups, the International Consensus on ANA Patterns (ICAP) and UK NEQAS to laboratory professionals and clinicians. Results 438 laboratory professionals and 248 clinicians from 67 countries responded. Except for dense fine speckled (DFS), the nuclear competent patterns were reported by > 85% of the laboratories. Except for rods and rings, the cytoplasmic competent patterns were reported by > 72% of laboratories. Cytoplasmic IIF staining was considered ANA positive by 55% of clinicians and 62% of laboratory professionals, with geographical and expertise-related differences. Quantification of fluorescence intensity was considered clinically relevant for nuclear patterns, but less so for cytoplasmic and mitotic patterns. Combining IIF with specific extractable nuclear antigens (ENA)/dsDNA antibody testing was considered most informative. Of the nuclear competent patterns, the centromere and homogeneous pattern obtained the highest scores for clinical relevance and the DFS pattern the lowest. Of the cytoplasmic patterns, the reticular/mitochondria-like pattern obtained the highest scores for clinical relevance and the polar/Golgi-like and rods and rings patterns the lowest. Conclusion This survey confirms that the major nuclear and cytoplasmic ANA IIF patterns are considered clinically important. There is no unanimity on classifying DFS, rods and rings and polar/Golgi-like as a competent pattern and on reporting cytoplasmic patterns as ANA IIF positive.

BackgroundThe International Consensus on Antinuclear Antibody (ANA) Patterns (ICAP) has recently proposed nomenclature in order to harmonize ANA indirect immunofluorescence (IIF) pattern reporting. ICAP distinguishes competent-level from expert-level patterns. A survey was organized to evaluate reporting, familiarity, and considered clinical value of ANA IIF patterns. MethodsTwo surveys were distributed by European Autoimmunity Standardization Initiative (EASI) working groups, the International Consensus on ANA Patterns (ICAP) and UK NEQAS to laboratory professionals and clinicians. Results438 laboratory professionals and 248 clinicians from 67 countries responded. Except for dense fine speckled (DFS), the nuclear competent patterns were reported by >85% of the laboratories. Except for rods and rings, the cytoplasmic competent patterns were reported by >72% of laboratories. Cytoplasmic IIF staining was considered ANA positive by 55% of clinicians and 62% of laboratory professionals, with geographical and expertise-related differences. Quantification of fluorescence intensity was considered clinically relevant for nuclear patterns, but less so for cytoplasmic and mitotic patterns. Combining IIF with specific extractable nuclear antigens (ENA)/dsDNA antibody testing was considered most informative. Of the nuclear competent patterns, the centromere and homogeneous pattern obtained the highest scores for clinical relevance and the DFS pattern the lowest. Of the cytoplasmic patterns, the reticular/mitochondria-like pattern obtained the highest scores for clinical relevance and the polar/Golgi-like and rods and rings patterns the lowest. ConclusionThis survey confirms that the major nuclear and cytoplasmic ANA IIF patterns are considered clinically important. There is no unanimity on classifying DFS, rods and rings and polar/Golgi-like as a competent pattern and on reporting cytoplasmic patterns as ANA IIF positive.

Mutations in more than 250 genes are implicated in inherited retinal dystrophy; the encoded proteins are involved in a broad spectrum of pathways. The presence of unsolved families after highly parallel sequencing strategies suggests that further genes remain to be identified. Whole-exome and -genome sequencing studies employed here in large cohorts of affected individuals revealed biallelic mutations in ARHGEF18 in three such individuals. ARHGEF18 encodes ARHGEF18, a guanine nucleotide exchange factor that activates RHOA, a small GTPase protein that is a key component of tight junctions and adherens junctions. This biological pathway is known to be important for retinal development and function, as mutation of CRB1, encoding another component, causes retinal dystrophy. The retinal structure in individuals with ARHGEF18 mutations resembled that seen in subjects with CRB1 mutations. Five mutations were found on six alleles in the three individuals: c.808A>G (p.Thr270Ala), c.1617+5G>A (p.Asp540Glyfs ∗ 63), c.1996C>T (p.Arg666 ∗ ), c.2632G>T (p.Glu878 ∗ ), and c.2738_2761del (p.Arg913_Glu920del). Functional tests suggest that each disease genotype might retain some ARHGEF18 activity, such that the phenotype described here is not the consequence of nullizygosity. In particular, the p.Thr270Ala missense variant affects a highly conserved residue in the DBL homology domain, which is required for the interaction and activation of RHOA. Previously, knock-out of Arhgef18 in the medaka fish has been shown to cause larval lethality which is preceded by retinal defects that resemble those seen in zebrafish Crumbs complex knock-outs. The findings described here emphasize the peculiar sensitivity of the retina to perturbations of this pathway, which is highlighted as a target for potential therapeutic strategies.

Contains fulltext : 229571.pdf (Publisher’s version ) (Closed access) BACKGROUND: An increasing number of NFKB1 variants are being identified in patients with heterogeneous immunologic phenotypes. OBJECTIVE: To characterize the clinical and cellular phenotype as well as the management of patients with heterozygous NFKB1 mutations. METHODS: In a worldwide collaborative effort, we evaluated 231 individuals harboring 105 distinct heterozygous NFKB1 variants. To provide evidence for pathogenicity, each variant was assessed in silico; in addition, 32 variants were assessed by functional in vitro testing of nuclear factor of kappa light polypeptide gene enhancer in B cells (NF-κB) signaling. RESULTS: We classified 56 of the 105 distinct NFKB1 variants in 157 individuals from 68 unrelated families as pathogenic. Incomplete clinical penetrance (70%) and age-dependent severity of NFKB1-related phenotypes were observed. The phenotype included hypogammaglobulinemia (88.9%), reduced switched memory B cells (60.3%), and respiratory (83%) and gastrointestinal (28.6%) infections, thus characterizing the disorder as primary immunodeficiency. However, the high frequency of autoimmunity (57.4%), lymphoproliferation (52.4%), noninfectious enteropathy (23.1%), opportunistic infections (15.7%), autoinflammation (29.6%), and malignancy (16.8%) identified NF-κB1-related disease as an inborn error of immunity with immune dysregulation, rather than a mere primary immunodeficiency. Current treatment includes immunoglobulin replacement and immunosuppressive agents. CONCLUSIONS: We present a comprehensive clinical overview of the NF-κB1-related phenotype, which includes immunodeficiency, autoimmunity, autoinflammation, and cancer. Because of its multisystem involvement, clinicians from each and every medical discipline need to be made aware of this autosomal-dominant disease. Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation and NF-κB1 pathway-targeted therapeutic strategies should be considered in the future.

Spencer et al. report the first description of human IL-6R deficiency in two patients presenting with recurrent infections, atopy, elevated IgE, and abnormal acute-phase responses., IL-6 excess is central to the pathogenesis of multiple inflammatory conditions and is targeted in clinical practice by immunotherapy that blocks the IL-6 receptor encoded by IL6R. We describe two patients with homozygous mutations in IL6R who presented with recurrent infections, abnormal acute-phase responses, elevated IgE, eczema, and eosinophilia. This study identifies a novel primary immunodeficiency, clarifying the contribution of IL-6 to the phenotype of patients with mutations in IL6ST, STAT3, and ZNF341, genes encoding different components of the IL-6 signaling pathway, and alerts us to the potential toxicity of drugs targeting the IL-6R.

Inherited retinal disease is a common cause of visual impairment and represents a highly heterogeneous group of conditions. Here, we present findings from a cohort of 722 individuals with inherited retinal disease, who have had whole-genome sequencing (n = 605), whole-exome sequencing (n = 72), or both (n = 45) performed, as part of the NIHR-BioResource Rare Diseases research study. We identified pathogenic variants (single-nucleotide variants, indels, or structural variants) for 404/722 (56%) individuals. Whole-genome sequencing gives unprecedented power to detect three categories of pathogenic variants in particular: structural variants, variants in GC-rich regions, which have significantly improved coverage compared to whole-exome sequencing, and variants in non-coding regulatory regions. In addition to previously reported pathogenic regulatory variants, we have identified a previously unreported pathogenic intronic variant in $\textit{CHM}$ in two males with choroideremia. We have also identified 19 genes not previously known to be associated with inherited retinal disease, which harbor biallelic predicted protein-truncating variants in unsolved cases. Whole-genome sequencing is an increasingly important comprehensive method with which to investigate the genetic causes of inherited retinal disease.

BACKGROUND: Sheffield NARCOS (National Adverse Reactions Advisory Service) investigates suspected perioperative anaesthetic reactions using serial tryptase, urinary methylhistamine and clinical information. Further recommendations for additional allergy clinic assessment are provided. OBJECTIVE: To establish a robustly measurable protocol for identifying mast cell mediator (MMR) release in this cohort. To compare these thresholds with previous suggested thresholds and algorithms. METHOD: A review of 3,455 NARCOS cases referred with a suspected peri-operative allergic reaction. Tryptase, Urinary methylhistamine (UMH) and clinical details were analysed. 1746 cases were graded using the Ring and Messmer scale. Reaction grade, tryptase and UMH changes were compared with statistical and graphical presentations appropriate to non-normally distributed measurements using Analyse-IT software. RESULTS: Sensitive strategies such as 3μg/l or 20% are measurable, translatable and would substantially increase detection of potentially relevant changes in tryptases. Adequate quality assurance for low level measurement is needed. An incremental threshold of 20% would identify potential MMR in an additional 14% of cases with peak tryptase (Tp) between 5 and 14 μg/L and a further 15% with Tp below 5 μg/L. Further work is required to establish the diagnostic performance characteristics of this more sensitive approach. UMH also identified up to 120 further cases of potential MMR in absence of tryptase increments. CONCLUSION AND CLINICAL RELEVANCE: Future studies should establish and compare the predictive performance characteristics of each strategy against clinical phenotypes. A single agreed definition of positive serial tryptases is needed to enable robust evaluation of diagnostic strategies. This could serve as a harmonised standard for comparative studies of case series from different centres. This article is protected by copyright. All rights reserved.

Summary Immunoglobulin (Ig)G4 disease can have apparently ‘normal’ levels of IgG4 due to antigen excess conditions. IgG4 measurement therefore appears falsely low. UK National External Quality Assurance Scheme (UK NEQAS) data and other reports have suggested that this problem occurred despite pre-existing antigen excess detection steps. To determine the clinical relevance of the problem, we examined the prevalence and characteristics of prozoning in our laboratory and patient cohorts. We establish that the prevalence of raised IgG4 in routine IgG4 analysis is low (< 1%) using one of the two routine methods in use in the United Kingdom. We show that subsequent assay modification appears to have reduced the likelihood of misleading readings. However, the original version of the assay prozoned to low levels (below 0·64 g/l) in 41% of high IgG4 samples in our patients. This may explain the previous reports of low sensitivity of raised IgG4 for IgG4RD, and predictive values should be re-evaluated in this disease using modified prozone-resistant protocols. All laboratories providing IgG4 measurements should verify that their assays are fit for the clinical quality requirement of detection raised IgG4 levels and must verify the upper limit of their reference ranges and freedom from prozoning.

© 2019 American Society of Human Genetics The occurrence of non-epileptic hyperkinetic movements in the context of developmental epileptic encephalopathies is an increasingly recognized phenomenon. Identification of causative mutations provides an important insight into common pathogenic mechanisms that cause both seizures and abnormal motor control. We report bi-allelic loss-of-function CACNA1B variants in six children from three unrelated families whose affected members present with a complex and progressive neurological syndrome. All affected individuals presented with epileptic encephalopathy, severe neurodevelopmental delay (often with regression), and a hyperkinetic movement disorder. Additional neurological features included postnatal microcephaly and hypotonia. Five children died in childhood or adolescence (mean age of death: 9 years), mainly as a result of secondary respiratory complications. CACNA1B encodes the pore-forming subunit of the pre-synaptic neuronal voltage-gated calcium channel Cav2.2/N-type, crucial for SNARE-mediated neurotransmission, particularly in the early postnatal period. Bi-allelic loss-of-function variants in CACNA1B are predicted to cause disruption of Ca2+ influx, leading to impaired synaptic neurotransmission. The resultant effect on neuronal function is likely to be important in the development of involuntary movements and epilepsy. Overall, our findings provide further evidence for the key role of Cav2.2 in normal human neurodevelopment.

Background Flucloxacillin is a narrow-spectrum, beta-lactamase–resistant penicillin. Type I (IgE-mediated) and type IV (T-cell–mediated) reactions are less frequently reported than with other penicillins. Objective To undertake a detailed clinical characterization of a cohort of patients referred with suspected flucloxacillin hypersensitivity. Methods We retrospectively analyzed demographic characteristics, presentation, investigation, and management of 108 patients presenting to 4 UK centers. Patients underwent skin prick and intradermal testing with flucloxacillin, major (benzylpenicilloyl poly- l -lysine) and minor determinants, amoxicillin, and benzylpenicillin with immediate and, where appropriate, delayed reading of the test. In the immediate group, a further 14 patients were tested to ampicillin and 16 to Augmentin (co-amoxiclav—combination of clavulanic acid and amoxicillin). Skin test–negative patients underwent oral drug provocation. A multistep protocol was used, depending on risk assessment. Results Forty of 108 (37%) patients were diagnosed with hypersensitivity to flucloxacillin, of whom 33 (82.5%) showed immediate and 7 (17.5%) nonimmediate hypersensitivity, respectively. In the immediate group, most reactions were severe: 19 of 33 (58%). Intradermal testing had a higher negative predictive value (86%) in the immediate group than in the nonimmediate group (67%). Only a minority of patients (6 of 17 [35%]) with IgE-mediated allergy were cross-sensitized on intradermal testing with other penicillins, compared with 3 of 4 (75%) in the delayed group. Conclusions Immediate hypersensitivity reactions to flucloxacillin are more common than delayed. Cross-sensitization to other penicillins appears higher in delayed reactions than in immediate. The negative predictive value of intradermal testing is higher in the immediate group than in the nonimmediate group. Drug provocation testing remains the diagnostic criterion standard.

Next-generation sequencing has been invaluable in the elucidation of the genetic etiology of many subtypes of intellectual disability in recent years. Here, using exome sequencing and whole-genome sequencing, we identified three de novo truncating mutations in WAS protein family member 1 (WASF1) in five unrelated individuals with moderate to profound intellectual disability with autistic features and seizures. WASF1, also known as WAVE1, is part of the WAVE complex and acts as a mediator between Rac-GTPase and actin to induce actin polymerization. The three mutations connected by Matchmaker Exchange were c.1516C>T (p.Arg506Ter), which occurs in three unrelated individuals, c.1558C>T (p.Gln520Ter), and c.1482delinsGCCAGG (p.Ile494MetfsTer23). All three variants are predicted to partially or fully disrupt the C-terminal actin-binding WCA domain. Functional studies using fibroblast cells from two affected individuals with the c.1516C>T mutation showed a truncated WASF1 and a defect in actin remodeling. This study provides evidence that de novo heterozygous mutations in WASF1 cause a rare form of intellectual disability. ispartof: AMERICAN JOURNAL OF HUMAN GENETICS vol:103 issue:1 pages:144-153 ispartof: location:United States status: published

Introduction Paediatric ESPGHAN guidelines support a diagnosis of coeliac disease (CD) when immunoglobulin-A anti-tissue transglutaminase (IgA tTG) antibody titres are >10 times the upper limit of normal (ULN) and combined with supportive criteria. This study examines whether serological testing alone could be sufficient for diagnosis in adult patients, thus avoiding the need for duodenal biopsies. Methods We performed a prospective analysis of CD patients diagnosed in a University hospital. Symptoms of CD, villous atrophy (VA) on biopsy, IgA-endomysial (IgA-EMA) antibodies, tTG and Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA) genotype were used for analysis. We then compared the TTG antibody level against small bowel histology. Results 443 CD patients (66.8% female, median age 41 years, range 15–84 years) were diagnosed between 2008 and 2016. 56.9% (n=252, 95% CI=52.12–61.53) had a tTG value of greater than 10 times the ULN. 292 fulfilled ESPGHAN guidelines for features of malabsorption (diarrhoea=157, weight loss=45 and anaemia=190). Of these symptomatic patients, 70.4% (n=179, 95% CI=64.86–76.08) had a tTG value 10 x ULN. The proportion reaching the 10 x tTG threshold was 55.4% (n=87, 95% CI=47.64–63.19) for diarrhoea, 60.0% (n=27, 95% CI=45.69–74.31) for weight loss, and 74.2% (n=141, 95% CI=67.99–80.43) for anaemia. Of the 151 patients who did not experience malabsorptive features, 49.0% met the 10 x ULN tTG level (n=74, 95%CI=41.03–56.98). The sensitivity of tTG antibodies and EMA antibodies for predicting VA was 93.2% (95% CI=90.89–95.57) and 90.7% respectively (95% CI=88.05–93.44). Combined tTG and EMA was 98.6% (95% CI=97.67–99.72). All patients had compatible HLA typing, thereby failing to add any further diagnostic value. Conclusions 56.9% of patients would have been correctly diagnosed with CD and avoided a duodenal biopsy using an IgA tTG threshold of >10 times the ULN. Symptoms and HLA typing did not add any supportive information. This study provides evidence that a biopsy avoidance strategy may be implemented into adult gastroenterological practice.

Background: Detection of anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) is important for the diagnosis of the ANCA-associated vasculitides (AAV). For AAV, especially ANCA directed against myeloperoxidase (MPO) and proteinase 3 (PR3) are most relevant. ANCA with less well-defined specificities may, however, also be detected in other inflammatory and non-inflammatory conditions. Methods: A questionnaire, initiated by the European Autoimmunity Standardisation Initiative (EASI), was used to gather information on methods and testing algorithms used for ANCA in clinical laboratories of 12 European countries (EASI survey). Results: Four hundred and twenty-nine responses were included in the EASI survey analysis which revealed differences within countries and between countries. Laboratories overall were poor in adherence to international consensus on ANCA testing. Substantial variation was observed with respect to the use of ANCA indirect immunofluorescence (IIF) in the algorithm, application of distinct methods for MPO- and PR3-ANCA, the daily availability of new ANCA results, and interpretation of test results. Conclusions: Awareness of these differences may stimulate further harmonization and standardization of ANCA testing. This may be promoted by an update of the international ANCA consensus and the introduction of international standards.

Summary We describe an observational survey of diagnostic pathways in 104 patients attending four specialist allergy clinics in the United Kingdom following perioperative hypersensitivity reactions to chlorhexidine reactions. The majority were life-threatening. Men undergoing urological or cardiothoracic surgery predominated. Skin prick testing and specific immunoglobulin (sIg)E testing were the most common tests used for diagnosis. Fifty-three per cent of diagnoses were made on the basis of a single positive test. Where multiple tests were performed the sensitivity of intradermal, basophil activation and skin prick testing was 68% (50–86%), 50% (10–90%) and 35% (17–55%), respectively. Seven per cent were negative on screening tests initially, and 12 cases were only positive for a single test despite multiple testing. Intradermal tests appeared most sensitive in this context. Additional sensitization to other substances used perioperatively, particularly neuromuscular blocking agents (NMBA), was found in 28 patients, emphasizing the need to test for possible allergy to all drugs to which the patient was exposed even where chlorhexidine is positive.

Background In cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) spectrophotometry, if the net bilirubin absorbance (NBA) and net oxyhaemoglobin absorbance (NOA) are both raised with a visible oxyhaemoglobin peak, the revised national guidelines for analysis of CSF bilirubin advise interpreting the results as ‘Consistent with subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH)’ regardless of the CSF total protein concentration of the specimen. We wanted to study the range of CSF total protein concentrations found in confirmed SAH to establish if the CSF total protein value can give further guidance on the likelihood of SAH. Methods Consecutive cases from five different hospital sites were included if the CSF NBA was greater than 0.007 AU and the NOA was greater than 0.02 AU with a visible oxyhaemoglobin peak. For the cases identified, the laboratory information management system and patient records were interrogated to identify the total protein concentration of the CSF specimen and whether SAH had ultimately been confirmed or excluded by other methods and supporting evidence. Results Results from 132 patients were included. The CSF total protein range in confirmed SAH was 0.23–3.08 g/L with a median concentration of 0.7 g/L (n = 51). In the SAH excluded group, the CSF total protein range was 0.43–29 g/L with a median concentration of 1.9 g/L (n = 81). Conclusions Although confirmed SAH was not associated with the very highest concentrations of CSF total protein, a definite CSF protein cut-off concentration above which SAH could reliably be excluded cannot be recommended.

A proportion of people living with common variable\ud immunodeficiency disorders develop granulomatouslymphocytic\ud interstitial lung disease (GLILD). We aimed to\ud develop a consensus statement on the definition, diagnosis, and\ud management of GLILD. All UK specialist centers were contacted\ud and relevant physicians were invited to take part in a 3-round\ud online Delphi process. Responses were graded as Strongly Agree,\ud Tend to Agree, Neither Agree nor Disagree, Tend to Disagree,\ud and Strongly Disagree, scored D1, D0.5, 0, L0.5, and L1,\ud respectively. Agreement was defined as greater than or equal to\ud 80% consensus. Scores are reported as mean – SD. There was\ud 100% agreement (score, 0.92 – 0.19) for the following\ud definition: “GLILD is a distinct clinico-radio-pathological ILD\ud occurring in patients with [common variable immunodeficiency\ud disorders], associated with a lymphocytic infiltrate and/or\ud granuloma in the lung, and in whom other conditions have been\ud considered and where possible excluded.” There was consensus\ud that the workup of suspected GLILD requires chest computed\ud tomography (CT) (0.98 – 0.01), lung function tests (eg, gas\ud transfer, 0.94 – 0.17), bronchoscopy to exclude infection (0.63 –\ud 0.50), and lung biopsy (0.58 – 0.40). There was no consensus on\ud whether expectant management following optimization of\ud immunoglobulin therapy was acceptable: 67% agreed, 25%\ud disagreed, score 0.38 – 0.59; 90% agreed that when treatment\ud was required, first-line treatment should be with corticosteroids\ud alone (score, 0.55 – 0.51).

BackgroundSheffield National Adverse Reactions Consultancy Service (NARCOS) investigates and triages suspected perioperative anaesthetic reactions to allergy clinics, using serial tryptase samples, urinary methylhistamine and clinical information on a pro forma request.ObjectiveTo determine if current UK guidelines on serial tryptase samples are achieved and describe the patterns of tryptase release.MethodA retrospective review of 3455 NARCOS cases. Tryptase and clinical details were analysed. 1746 had sufficient clinical information to grade the reactions according to the Ring and Messmer scale.Results98% provided two or more acute samples, but only 60% supplied clinical information. 308 patients never dropped within the reference range over three samples.ConclusionsGood compliance with UK guidelines for tryptase measurements is achievable in this long-term cohort, but obtaining clinical details at referral remains a challenge. Sample sequence labelling and apparent timing may be misleading. Baseline tryptase may frequently need to be rechecked in allergy clinics to estimate true peak-to-trough changes.

Summary Mast cell tryptase (MCT) is a key diagnostic test for mastocytosis and anaphylaxis. High serum tryptase levels are also one of the risk factors for adverse reaction in venom immunotherapy, yet occasional patients are seen with raised levels in the absence of either diagnosis. False positive results can be due to assay interference by heterophilic antibodies such as rheumatoid factor (RF) and human anti-mouse antibodies (HAMA). We therefore investigated heterophilic antibody interference by rheumatoid factor activity and HAMA as a cause of raised MCT results in the Phadia tryptase assay. Serum samples from 83 patients were assayed for MCT and rheumatoid factor before and after the use of heterophilic antibody blocking tubes (HBT). Samples with more than 17% reduction in MCT with detectable RF were then assayed for HAMA. Fourteen (17%) of the 83 samples with positive RF showed a >17% decrease in mast cell tryptase after HBT blocking. Post-HBT, eight of 14 (57%) reverted from elevated to normal range values with falls of up to 98%. RF levels were also decreased significantly (up to 75%). Only one of the 83 tested was apparently affected by HAMA in the absence of detectable IgM RF. In conclusion, any suspicious MCT result should be checked for heterophilic antibodies to evaluate possible interference. False positive MCT levels can be caused by rheumatoid factor. We suggest a strategy for identifying assay interference, and show that it is essential to incorporate this caveat into guidance for interpretation of MCT results.

SummaryCommon variable immunodeficiency disorders (CVIDs) are a heterogeneous group of diseases characterized by hypogammaglobulinaemia and consequent susceptibility to infection. CVID patients commonly develop a variety of additional manifestations for which the causative factors are not fully understood. Two such manifestations are granulomatous disease and enteropathy. Because the ability to predict complications would aid clinical management, we continue to search for possible disease modifier genes. NOD2 acts a microbial sensor and is involved in proinflammatory signalling. Particular mutations of the NOD2 gene are associated with Crohn's disease including gly908arg, leu1007finsc and arg702trp polymorphisms. We hypothesized that NOD2 polymorphisms may be a disease modifier gene towards an enteropathic or granulomatous phenotype within CVIDs. Sequence-specific primers returned genotypes for 285 CVID patients from centres across the United Kingdom and Europe. We present the frequencies of the different phenotypes of patients within our international cohort. Arg702trp polymorphisms were significantly less frequent than wild-type (WT) (P = 0·038) among international CVID patients with splenomegaly. Gly908arg polymorphisms were more prevalent than WT in UK patients with autoimmune disorders (P = 0·049) or enteropathy (P = 0·049). NOD2 polymorphisms were not more prevalent than WT in CVID patients with clinical phenotypes of granulomata. UK allele frequencies of 0·014, 0·056 and 0·026 were found for gly908arg, arg702trp and leu1007finsc NOD2 polymorphisms, respectively. These do not differ significantly from UK immunocompetent controls confirming, as expected, that in addition these NOD2 polymorphisms do not confer susceptibility to CVIDs per se.

Cryoglobulins are serum immunoglobulins that precipitate at temperatures below 37°C and re-dissolve on warming. Cryoglobulinaemia leads to variable symptoms including characteristic purpura, ischaemia of extremities, renal failure, peripheral neuropathy, abdominal pain secondary to intestinal ischaemia and arthralgias. Cryoglobulin testing is underutilized in clinical practice. It has been neglected in clinical laboratories and by clinicians due to several factors, such as the length of time it takes for serum cryoglobulin analysis to be performed in the laboratory, the perceived difficulty in getting optimal sampling conditions and a failure to appreciate that even apparently low levels of cryoglobulin can be associated with severe symptoms in some patients. The most important variable confounding standardization of cryoglobulin testing is improper sample handling. A recent report critically appraising the current practice of cryoglobulin evaluation in 137 laboratories in Europe by United Kingdom National External Quality Assurance Scheme (UKNEQAS) illustrated the wide variability in practice. Although many clinical laboratories perform cryoglobulin evaluation, there are widespread differences in the methodology used and the care with which this is carried out and this leads to considerable intralaboratory and interlaboratory variability. The most common sources of error are false-negative results due to loss of cryoprecipitate during transport and storage. Better standardization is needed to avoid missed diagnoses and improve the comparability of results. Laboratories should ensure that sample temperature is maintained at 37°C until the serum is separated. In this article, we briefly review the classification and clinical features of cryoglobulins and suggest best practice guidelines for laboratory detection and identification of cryoglobulins.

Background & Aims: The optimal serologic tests for the detection of celiac disease and follow-up assessment remains controversial. Our aim was to evaluate all current immunologic assays for diagnosing celiac disease using the gold standard of duodenal biopsy. We also assessed whether tissue transglutaminase (tTG) antibody is a quantitative marker for histologic severity. Methods: Consecutive adult patients referred for gastroscopy without a previous known diagnosis of celiac disease were recruited (group 1). Concurrently, patients with a known diagnosis of celiac disease on a gluten-free diet for more than 1 year undergoing repeat duodenal biopsy were identified (group 2). All patients had duodenal biopsies and serologic analysis performed for immunoglobulin(Ig) A and antibodies to human immunoglobulin (Ig)A-tTG, IgA-gliadin, IgG-gliadin, and IgA-endomysial antibody. Results: Two thousand patients were recruited in the first group. Seventy-seven (3.9%) patients were diagnosed with new celiac disease. The sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value for IgA tTG were 90.9%, 90.9%, 28.6%, and 99.6%. When adopting a 2-step approach using tTG first and then EMA the sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value was 85.7%, 98.6%, 71.7%, and 99.7%, respectively. The use of nondeamidated IgA/IgG gliadin antibodies conferred no additional diagnostic benefit when considering the detection of adult celiac disease. In the second group 48 patients with celiac disease on a gluten-free diet were identified. Sixteen of 48 of these patients had persisting villous atrophy, but 7 of 16 (44%) had a normal tTG level. Conclusions: IgA tTG alone is a sensitive marker for celiac disease. A normal tTG level does not predict recovery of villous atrophy in patients with celiac disease on a gluten-free diet.

The updated ESPGHAN guidance on coeliac disease recommends the use of common multiples of the upper limit of normal (ULN) for IgA tissue transglutaminase antibodies (TG2) when deciding which diagnostic pathway to follow. The current lack of standardisation between assays makes it difficult to harmonise results between centres as different performance characteristics are observed with each assay. This variability is shown in data from external quality assessment distributions. As a result, the updated guidance is too generalised for use with all the commercial TG2 kits and is therefore not translatable for use in all centres.

Aim To compare the predictive values of enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs) and indirect immunofluorescence (IIF) techniques for the detection of M2 anti-mitochondrial antibodies. Methods Commercial ELISAs are widely available for the detection of antimitochondrial antibody subtypes in primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC). We compared the results from two ELISAs (one recombinant, one purified antigen) with those from two IIF methods in a well-defined cohort of PBC patients and in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus, Sjögren's syndrome, sicca syndrome, systemic sclerosis, rheumatoid arthritis and blood donor controls. Results There was good correlation between a rodent substrate IIF and ELISA A ( r = 0·9134), but poor correlation with ELISA B ( r = 0·5999), which produced many false-positive results in the control population. We show that rodent IIF alone or human epithelial cell (HEp-2000®) screening with confirmation by ELISA produce similar predictive values for PBC and require lesser degrees of skilled interpretation of IIF patterns. Conclusions We conclude that the specificities of IIF are greater than the ELISA methods (99% versus 85-97%), although the ELISAs are slightly more sensitive in biopsy-proven PBC. Careful in-house validation of all new ELISA technologies is mandatory for good laboratory practice, but IIF in experienced hands remains an effective and specific assay.

This case report highlights the immunological considerations in patients who are diagnosed with disseminated infection due to BCG or environmental mycobacteria.

ANA IIF is an effective screening assay in patients with clinical features of SLE and will detect most anti-ssDNA, anti-dsDNA, ENAs, and other autoantibodies. False positives are common. The clinical importance cannot be extrapolated from the ANA titre or pattern, although higher titres (> 1/160) are more likely to be important. HEp-2 cells are the most sensitive substrate for ANA detection, but this must be balanced against an increased incidence of insignificant positivity. ANA positive samples should be subjected to more specific assays for the diagnosis of SLE. A combination of ENA (Ro/La/Sm/RNP) and dsDNA assays will detect most patients with SLE as long as the characteristics of the assays used are well understood. ESR and CRP measurements provide useful additional information. Sjogren's syndrome and MCTD will produce overlapping serology with SLE, and anti-dsDNA titres are sometimes seen in autoimmune hepatitis and rheumatoid arthritis. All results should be reported in the light of the clinical details, by an experienced immunologist. A suggested diagnostic protocol is outlined in fig 1. The type of assay used crucially influences the predictive value of the tests. ELISA technology dominates routine laboratory practice, but tends to produce more false positive and true weak positive results, which may reduce the PPV of the test. This can be minimised by using IgG specific conjugates and careful assay validation. The NPV for SLE [figure: see text] is high for most assays but the PPV varies. Where necessary, laboratories should use crithidia or Farr dsDNA assays to confirm dubious ELISA dsDNA results, and ID/IB to confirm dubious ENA results. For monitoring, a precise, quantitative assay is required. It is unclear whether the detection of IgM or low affinity antibodies has a role here. A combination of anti-dsDNA, C3, C4, CRP, and ESR assays provides the most useful clinical information. Anti-ssDNA assays are likely to be useful, and are potentially more robust than anti-dsDNA assays, but require more validation. Local validation of individual assays and EQA participation is essential. Not all assays that apparently measure the same antibody specificities have equal clinical relevance, even within a single technology. Insufficient international or national reference preparations are currently available for many antibody specificities to enable effective standardisation. Quality assurance schemes reveal large differences in units reported by different assays for some analytes, even when calibrated against an IRP or equivalent reference preparation. Serial results can therefore only be compared from the same laboratory at present. Most autoantibodies increase during active disease, but few prospective data are currently available to justify treatment on the basis of rising titres. Further randomised prospective studies are required to examine the importance of antibody isotype and affinity in the monitoring of SLE by individual assay methods. The most important aspect of the appropriate use of laboratory assays is to become familiar with the limitations of the technology currently in use in your local laboratory, and to consult with your clinical immunologist in cases of doubt, preferably before commencing serological screening.

Background The measurement of serum IgE aids in the diagnosis and management of atopic allergic disease and hyper-IgE immunodeficiency syndromes. The 2nd World Health Organization (WHO) International Reference Reagent (IRR) for serum IgE (75/502; 5000 IU/ampoule), is widely used to calibrate assays for serum IgE. Exhaustion of stocks of the 2nd IRR necessitated the production of a replacement preparation and its evaluation in an international collaborative study to determine its suitability to serve as the 3rd International Standard (IS) for serum IgE. Methods Sera and defibrinated plasma with elevated IgE levels were pooled and lyophilised in ampoules. This preparation, coded 11/234, was assayed by 18 laboratories in 11 countries using commercial assay methodology for IgE, along with the 2nd IRR, 75/502, and two lyophilised serum samples. Results Overall, there were no consistent differences in the way that the candidate IS (11/234), the IRR (75/502), and the two serum samples behaved in the assays with respect to linearity and parallelism. The mean IgE value of the candidate IS, 11/234, relative to the IRR, 75/502, was 13,411 IU/mL based on parallel line analysis of raw assay data at NIBSC, and 13,551 IU/mL based on the laboratories' own estimates after correcting for the values obtained for 75/502. Conclusions The use of 11/234 will ensure that assays for serum IgE continue to be well standardised. The preparation was established by the WHO Expert Committee on Biological Standardization as the 3rd IS for serum IgE with an assigned value of 13,500 IU/mL, corresponding to 6750 IU/ampoule.

Results The patient (smoker) complained on a variety of symptoms that were bothering her for more than 3 years: headaches, significant fatigue, nasal blockage, breathlessness on exercise and occasionally at rest. There were no ocular symptoms. She had several courses of antibiotics during this period with slight improvement. Careful history revealed progressive deterioration in her condition; there was no difference in her symptom pattern through the season although she noted that she had more sinus pains in winter. There was a dog, but no dampness in the house. There was no personal or family history of atopy. Anterior rhinoscopy had appearance of acute inflammation with no structural abnormalities. Spirometry showed FEV1 95%, FVC 92% and Peak flow 85% predicted. Skin prick test with valid controls, was negative to a standard panel of aeroallergens including dog. Immunocap ISAC test was offered to broaden the spectrum of allergens tested. This showed mono-sensitisation to Dog rCan f 5 Arginine esterase 1,5 ISU and negative to all other components.

Haematology/Immunology Research Group, Christchurch Hospital and Christchurch School of Medicine, Christchurch, New Zealand ICRF Laboratories, Institute of Molecular Medicine, Oxford, GB Dendritic cells (DC) are potent stimulators of primary T lymphocyte responses to foreign antigen. The initial DC-T lymphocyte interaction involves the binding of the adhesion molecule leukocyte function antigen-1 (LFA-1; CDlldCD18) on the T lymphocyte to an intercellular adhesion molecule (ICAM) on DC. Although blood and tonsil DC express ICAM-1 (CD54) and ICAM-2 (CD102) on their surface, anti-ICAM-1 and anti-ICAM-2 monoclonal antibodies (mAb) have little inhibitory activity on the DC-stimulated mixed leukocyte reaction (MLR). We therefore examined the expression of the more recently identified LFA-1 ligand, ICAM-3 (CD50), in comparison to ICAM-1 and ICAM-2 on blood DC and sought a functional role for ICAM-3 in DC-mediated T lympho- cyte responses. Resting blood DC expressed significantly more ICAM-3 than ICAM-1 or ICAM-2 as assessed by flow cytometry. Treatment of resting DC with interferon-y led to increased expression of ICAM-1; however, ICAM-2 and ICAM-3 levels remained relatively constant. Solid-phase recombinant chimeric molecules ICAM-1-, ICAM-2- and ICAM-3-Fc were able to co-stimulate CD4' T lymphocyte proliferation in conjunction with suboptimal solid-phase CD3 mAb 64.1. However, the anti-ICAM-3 mAb CAL 3.10 inhibited a DC- stimulated MLR to a greater extent than anti-ICAM-1 or anti-ICAM-2 reagents and appeared to act by blocking the DC ICAM-3- T lymphocyte LFA-1 interac- tion. As ICAM-3 is the predominant LFA-1 ligand on resting blood DC, we pos- tulate that DC may utilize ICAM-3 for initial DC- T lymphocyte interactions, and that ICAM-1, which is up-regulated upon DC activation, and/or ICAM-2, may contribute to DC migration or later phases of the T lymphocyte activation process.

Aims Immunoglobulin A (IgA) measurement is advocated when case finding for coeliac disease in patients with Type 1 diabetes mellitus. Currently, there is a paucity of contemporary studies assessing IgA deficiency in Type 1 diabetes. This study evaluates the prevalence of IgA deficiency in individuals with Type 1 diabetes, compared with patients with coeliac disease and control subjects. In addition, we evaluate whether routine IgA measurement is justifiable when case finding for coeliac disease in patients with Type 1 diabetes. Methods All patients were assessed using IgA endomysial antibodies, IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies and total IgA levels. Altogether, 2434 individuals were tested: 1000 patients with Type 1 diabetes, 234 patients with coeliac disease and 1200 population control subjects. Definitive IgA deficiency was defined as total IgA levels

Summary National Institute of Clinical Excellence (NICE) and European Society for Paediatric Gastroenterology, Hepatology and Nutrition (ESPGHAN) guidance for the diagnosis of coeliac disease has been published. However, there is some controversy regarding the advice on the use of stratifying levels of immunoglobulin (IgA) tissue transglutaminase antibody (TG2) test positivity in the absence of test standardization and the vagueness of the indication to test equivocal samples. Using repeat service audit, we demonstrate that a combination of TG2 followed by IgA endomysial antibodies (EMA) is the best strategy for all degrees of mucosal abnormality using our test combination. Reliance upon immunoassay titre is not as effective, and cannot be applied consistently across populations in the absence of assay standardization. Guidelines advocating the use of tests should involve experts in laboratory diagnostics and external quality assurance to ensure that errors of generalization do not occur and that test performance is achievable in routine diagnostic use.

Objective To determine the prevalence, prognostic value, and response to thyroxine therapy of thyroid peroxidase antibody (TPOAb) in women with unexplained recurrent miscarriage (RM). Design Observational, cohort study. The index cases included women with unexplained RM who tested positive for thyroid peroxidase antibody, and control cases included women with unexplained RM who tested negative for the antibodies; a second age-matched control group included women with RM who had a known cause for the repeated pregnancy loss. Setting Tertiary referral center for RM. Patient(s) A total of 496 women with unexplained RM and 220 women with known diagnoses of RM who had a TPOAb test. Intervention(s) Thyroxine replacement (50 μg daily during pregnancy) was begun in some patients who tested positive for thyroid peroxidase antibody, irrespective of TSH level. Main Outcome Measure(s) Miscarriage and live birth rates of a subsequent pregnancy. Result(s) A total of 496 women with unexplained RM who had a TPOAb test were included in the study. Of these, 10.7% of subjects tested positive for TPOAb. The prevalence of TPOAb in control subjects who had a known cause for RM was 11.8%. The live birth rate of the first pregnancies after referral was 64%, 53%, and 58% in TPOAb-negative, TPOAb-positive with thyroxine treatment, and TPOAb-positive without treatment subjects; there was no significant difference in the outcome between any two or three groups, or between those who tested positive or negative for TPOAb. Among women who tested positive for TPOAb, there was no difference in the antibody titer between women with unexplained RM and those with a known cause for the pregnancy loss. Women who tested positive for TPOAb were significantly more likely to have TSH levels above the normal range (≥4.2 mIU/L). Conclusion(s) The prevalence of TPOAb-positive results in women with unexplained RM is not higher than in the general population, TPOAb-positive status does not have a prognostic value regarding the outcome of a subsequent pregnancy, and empirical thyroxine therapy in those who tested positive did not seem to improve outcome.

It is crucially important to detect subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) in all patients in whom it has occurred to select patients for angiography and preventative surgery. A computerized tomography (CT) scan is positive in up to 98% of patients with SAH presenting within 12 h, but is positive in only 50% of those presenting within one week. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) bilirubin spectrophotometry can be used to determine the need for angiography in those few CT-negative patients in whom clinical suspicion of SAH remains high; it may remain positive up to two weeks after the event. A lumbar puncture (LP) should only be performed >12 h after the onset of presenting symptoms. Whenever possible collect sequential specimens. Always ensure that the least blood-stained CSF sample taken (usually the last) is sent for bilirubin analysis. Protect the CSF from light and avoid vacuum tube transport systems, if possible. Always use spectrophotometry in preference to visual inspection. All CSF specimens are precious and should always be analysed unless insufficient sample is received. Centrifuge the specimen at >2000 rpm for 5 min as soon as possible after receipt in the laboratory. Store the supernatant at 4°C in the dark until analysis. An increase in CSF bilirubin is the key finding, which supports the occurrence of SAH but is not specific for this. In most positive cases, bilirubin will occur with oxyhaemoglobin.

To assess current practice in the detection, analysis, and reporting of cryoglobulins, a questionnaire was sent to 140 laboratories. Only 36% of laboratories used standard procedures (tube preheating, transport in container, and sedimentation and/or centrifugation at 37 °C) to ensure that the temperature did not drop below 37 °C until after serum separation. Time periods allowed for cryoprecipitation at 4 °C varied from 12 h to 9 days, with 30% of laboratories allowing precipitation for

The factors influencing the development of hepatic fibrosis, a key factor in determining outcome, are incompletely understood in hepatitis C. It has been suggested that the heterozygous Z mutation of the alpha1-antitrypsin gene (PiMZ) predisposes to more severe liver damage when infected by the hepatitis C virus. This retrospective cross-sectional study was designed to compare the prevalence of PiMZ in hepatitis C patients with different degrees of fibrosis.One hundred and forty-one patients from the Trent Hepatitis C Study Group's database were selected for study. Forty-six had no fibrosis on liver biopsy, 53 had cirrhosis and 42 had intermediate fibrosis. The alpha1-antitrypsin phenotype was determined by isoelectric focusing.There was no significant difference between the prevalence of PiMZ in the three groups--there was just one patient in each group. Comparing those with no fibrosis with those with cirrhosis, the odds ratio was 0.87 (95% confidence interval, 0.05-14).Our results do not support the hypothesis that the presence of the PiMZ phenotype predisposes to more severe fibrosis in patients with hepatitis C.

To underline the importance of correctly examining cerebrospinal fluid, we describe two patients with subarachnoid haemorrhage for whom cranial computerised tomography was normal and on whom lumbar puncture was subsequently done. Both had clear and colourless cerebrospinal fluid, but subsequent spectrophotometry showed bilirubin. Cerebral angiography then showed a ruptured aneurysm in each patient. Case 1 A 28 year old woman presented with nausea and diplopia. She had global headache which had awoken her 14 days before. This was associated with neck pain and stiffness, vomiting for two days, and photophobia for five to six days. On examination, severe bilateral papilloedema, and signs of a VIth nerve palsy were present. Cranial computerised …

Dendritic cells (DC) are a subpopulation of leucocytes with an important role as specialist antigen presenting cells (APC), being the only APC capable of initiating a strong primary T lymphocyte response. Using this functional property (ie their ability to stimulate a primary mixed leucocyte reaction) to detect DC we have identified a small population of potential DC precursors within human bone marrow (BM) (1). Further fractionation of this minor population of BM mononuclear cells (BMMC) using mAb with immunomagnetic separation and flow cytometry suggests this population has a close relationship with myeloid precursors and that even CD34 positive BMMC initiate an allogeneic MLR (2). It is possible to maintain these mAb mix-negative, lineage negative, BMMC in culture but it is not yet clear which cytokines optimize their growth and differentiation. The CDla antigen has not proven to be a marker restricted to human DC in BM. In our hands, GM-CSF and TNFα induce CDla expression on myeloid cells, but also distort myeloid differentiation, altering phenotypic appearances without selectively encouraging DC stimulatory function (3).

Publisher Summary This chapter focuses on the Isolation and Function of Human Dendritic Cells (DCs). DCs have been delineated in practically every human organ with the exception of the brain and central cornea. These tissue-resident DCs are thought to provide an extensive network of sentinel antigen-presenting cells (APCs) capable of antigen capture, processing, and subsequent migration to local lymphoid tissue where efficient primary T-lymphocyte stimulation occurs. The work on human DCs has emphasized the close relationship of DCs with other myeloid cells, despite their distinctive morphological and functional properties. The precise relationships between the DCs found in different tissues and their relationship to other myeloid cells remain to be conclusively established. Identification of DC precursors in human bone marrow and understanding the regulation of tissue migration and differentiation is still in its infancy, but important advances are being made, and are outlined in the chapter.

Lymphoid and interstitial dendritic cells (DC) originate from the bone marrow (BM) in rodents, 1,2 as does the human Langerhans cell, 3 but cells with appropriate morphological features and stimulatory properties have yet to be isolated from fresh, uncultured marrow in these species. We have shown that human BM, unlike that of rodents, is capable of stimulating resting T cells in the allogeneic mixed leucocyte reaction (MLR)4,5 without a period of in-vitro differentiation.

The molecular basis for the special ability of dendritic cells (DC) to stimulate primary T cell responses is at present unknown. Important accessory molecules such as the adhesion molecules LFA-3, LFA-1, ICAM-1 and ICAM-2 and probably BB1/B7 (the ligand for T cell CD28 and CTLA-4) are expressed on DC1 and contribute to the antigen presenting function of DC. However no unique co-stimulatory cell membrane molecule or secreted cytokine has been identified on DC to date. Human blood, tonsil and bone marrow DC are potent stimulators of alloimmune T lymphocyte responses. Highly purified peripheral blood CD19 positive B cells and CD14 positive monocytes may also stimulate an alloresponse from peripheral blood T cells, including those carefully depleted of endogenous antigen presenting cells; albeit a less potent one.

Editor,—We report a case of bilateral granulomatous uveitis, which prompted extensive diagnostic review in a 20 year old woman with a long history of recurrent infection and idiopathic thrombocytopenia. Investigations allowed the definitive diagnosis of common variable immunodeficiency with granulomas (granulomatous antibody deficiency syndrome.) To our knowledge this is the first reported case of granulomatous uveitis in association with granulomatous antibody deficiency (GAD). We discuss the features of GAD, and how it may be distinguished from sarcoidosis. ### CASE REPORT A 20 year old woman presented with sudden onset blurred vision. Examination revealed a bilateral granulomatous uveitis with mutton-fat keratic precipitates and anterior chamber cells. Two weeks later she developed bilateral optic disc swelling with multifocal areas of choroidal pallor in her left eye (Fig 1). There was no vitritis …