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Summary Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) represents a heterogeneous group of rare disorders. There is considerable morbidity and mortality as a result of non-infectious complications, and this presents clinicians with management challenges. Clinical guidelines to support the management of CVID are urgently required. The UK Primary Immunodeficiency Network and the British Society for Immunology funded a joint project to address this. A modified Delphi Survey was conducted for the assessment, diagnosis and treatment of the non-infectious blood, respiratory, gut and liver complications of CVID. A steering group of 10 consultant immunologists and one nurse specialist developed and reviewed the survey statements and agreed the final recommendations. In total, 22 recommendations and three areas for research were developed.

Mutations in more than 250 genes are implicated in inherited retinal dystrophy; the encoded proteins are involved in a broad spectrum of pathways. The presence of unsolved families after highly parallel sequencing strategies suggests that further genes remain to be identified. Whole-exome and -genome sequencing studies employed here in large cohorts of affected individuals revealed biallelic mutations in ARHGEF18 in three such individuals. ARHGEF18 encodes ARHGEF18, a guanine nucleotide exchange factor that activates RHOA, a small GTPase protein that is a key component of tight junctions and adherens junctions. This biological pathway is known to be important for retinal development and function, as mutation of CRB1, encoding another component, causes retinal dystrophy. The retinal structure in individuals with ARHGEF18 mutations resembled that seen in subjects with CRB1 mutations. Five mutations were found on six alleles in the three individuals: c.808A>G (p.Thr270Ala), c.1617+5G>A (p.Asp540Glyfs ∗ 63), c.1996C>T (p.Arg666 ∗ ), c.2632G>T (p.Glu878 ∗ ), and c.2738_2761del (p.Arg913_Glu920del). Functional tests suggest that each disease genotype might retain some ARHGEF18 activity, such that the phenotype described here is not the consequence of nullizygosity. In particular, the p.Thr270Ala missense variant affects a highly conserved residue in the DBL homology domain, which is required for the interaction and activation of RHOA. Previously, knock-out of Arhgef18 in the medaka fish has been shown to cause larval lethality which is preceded by retinal defects that resemble those seen in zebrafish Crumbs complex knock-outs. The findings described here emphasize the peculiar sensitivity of the retina to perturbations of this pathway, which is highlighted as a target for potential therapeutic strategies.

Inherited retinal disease is a common cause of visual impairment and represents a highly heterogeneous group of conditions. Here, we present findings from a cohort of 722 individuals with inherited retinal disease, who have had whole-genome sequencing (n = 605), whole-exome sequencing (n = 72), or both (n = 45) performed, as part of the NIHR-BioResource Rare Diseases research study. We identified pathogenic variants (single-nucleotide variants, indels, or structural variants) for 404/722 (56%) individuals. Whole-genome sequencing gives unprecedented power to detect three categories of pathogenic variants in particular: structural variants, variants in GC-rich regions, which have significantly improved coverage compared to whole-exome sequencing, and variants in non-coding regulatory regions. In addition to previously reported pathogenic regulatory variants, we have identified a previously unreported pathogenic intronic variant in $\textit{CHM}$ in two males with choroideremia. We have also identified 19 genes not previously known to be associated with inherited retinal disease, which harbor biallelic predicted protein-truncating variants in unsolved cases. Whole-genome sequencing is an increasingly important comprehensive method with which to investigate the genetic causes of inherited retinal disease.

BACKGROUND: Sheffield NARCOS (National Adverse Reactions Advisory Service) investigates suspected perioperative anaesthetic reactions using serial tryptase, urinary methylhistamine and clinical information. Further recommendations for additional allergy clinic assessment are provided. OBJECTIVE: To establish a robustly measurable protocol for identifying mast cell mediator (MMR) release in this cohort. To compare these thresholds with previous suggested thresholds and algorithms. METHOD: A review of 3,455 NARCOS cases referred with a suspected peri-operative allergic reaction. Tryptase, Urinary methylhistamine (UMH) and clinical details were analysed. 1746 cases were graded using the Ring and Messmer scale. Reaction grade, tryptase and UMH changes were compared with statistical and graphical presentations appropriate to non-normally distributed measurements using Analyse-IT software. RESULTS: Sensitive strategies such as 3μg/l or 20% are measurable, translatable and would substantially increase detection of potentially relevant changes in tryptases. Adequate quality assurance for low level measurement is needed. An incremental threshold of 20% would identify potential MMR in an additional 14% of cases with peak tryptase (Tp) between 5 and 14 μg/L and a further 15% with Tp below 5 μg/L. Further work is required to establish the diagnostic performance characteristics of this more sensitive approach. UMH also identified up to 120 further cases of potential MMR in absence of tryptase increments. CONCLUSION AND CLINICAL RELEVANCE: Future studies should establish and compare the predictive performance characteristics of each strategy against clinical phenotypes. A single agreed definition of positive serial tryptases is needed to enable robust evaluation of diagnostic strategies. This could serve as a harmonised standard for comparative studies of case series from different centres. This article is protected by copyright. All rights reserved.

Summary Immunoglobulin (Ig)G4 disease can have apparently ‘normal’ levels of IgG4 due to antigen excess conditions. IgG4 measurement therefore appears falsely low. UK National External Quality Assurance Scheme (UK NEQAS) data and other reports have suggested that this problem occurred despite pre-existing antigen excess detection steps. To determine the clinical relevance of the problem, we examined the prevalence and characteristics of prozoning in our laboratory and patient cohorts. We establish that the prevalence of raised IgG4 in routine IgG4 analysis is low (< 1%) using one of the two routine methods in use in the United Kingdom. We show that subsequent assay modification appears to have reduced the likelihood of misleading readings. However, the original version of the assay prozoned to low levels (below 0·64 g/l) in 41% of high IgG4 samples in our patients. This may explain the previous reports of low sensitivity of raised IgG4 for IgG4RD, and predictive values should be re-evaluated in this disease using modified prozone-resistant protocols. All laboratories providing IgG4 measurements should verify that their assays are fit for the clinical quality requirement of detection raised IgG4 levels and must verify the upper limit of their reference ranges and freedom from prozoning.

Background In cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) spectrophotometry, if the net bilirubin absorbance (NBA) and net oxyhaemoglobin absorbance (NOA) are both raised with a visible oxyhaemoglobin peak, the revised national guidelines for analysis of CSF bilirubin advise interpreting the results as ‘Consistent with subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH)’ regardless of the CSF total protein concentration of the specimen. We wanted to study the range of CSF total protein concentrations found in confirmed SAH to establish if the CSF total protein value can give further guidance on the likelihood of SAH. Methods Consecutive cases from five different hospital sites were included if the CSF NBA was greater than 0.007 AU and the NOA was greater than 0.02 AU with a visible oxyhaemoglobin peak. For the cases identified, the laboratory information management system and patient records were interrogated to identify the total protein concentration of the CSF specimen and whether SAH had ultimately been confirmed or excluded by other methods and supporting evidence. Results Results from 132 patients were included. The CSF total protein range in confirmed SAH was 0.23–3.08 g/L with a median concentration of 0.7 g/L (n = 51). In the SAH excluded group, the CSF total protein range was 0.43–29 g/L with a median concentration of 1.9 g/L (n = 81). Conclusions Although confirmed SAH was not associated with the very highest concentrations of CSF total protein, a definite CSF protein cut-off concentration above which SAH could reliably be excluded cannot be recommended.

Summary Mast cell tryptase (MCT) is a key diagnostic test for mastocytosis and anaphylaxis. High serum tryptase levels are also one of the risk factors for adverse reaction in venom immunotherapy, yet occasional patients are seen with raised levels in the absence of either diagnosis. False positive results can be due to assay interference by heterophilic antibodies such as rheumatoid factor (RF) and human anti-mouse antibodies (HAMA). We therefore investigated heterophilic antibody interference by rheumatoid factor activity and HAMA as a cause of raised MCT results in the Phadia tryptase assay. Serum samples from 83 patients were assayed for MCT and rheumatoid factor before and after the use of heterophilic antibody blocking tubes (HBT). Samples with more than 17% reduction in MCT with detectable RF were then assayed for HAMA. Fourteen (17%) of the 83 samples with positive RF showed a >17% decrease in mast cell tryptase after HBT blocking. Post-HBT, eight of 14 (57%) reverted from elevated to normal range values with falls of up to 98%. RF levels were also decreased significantly (up to 75%). Only one of the 83 tested was apparently affected by HAMA in the absence of detectable IgM RF. In conclusion, any suspicious MCT result should be checked for heterophilic antibodies to evaluate possible interference. False positive MCT levels can be caused by rheumatoid factor. We suggest a strategy for identifying assay interference, and show that it is essential to incorporate this caveat into guidance for interpretation of MCT results.

Background & Aims: The optimal serologic tests for the detection of celiac disease and follow-up assessment remains controversial. Our aim was to evaluate all current immunologic assays for diagnosing celiac disease using the gold standard of duodenal biopsy. We also assessed whether tissue transglutaminase (tTG) antibody is a quantitative marker for histologic severity. Methods: Consecutive adult patients referred for gastroscopy without a previous known diagnosis of celiac disease were recruited (group 1). Concurrently, patients with a known diagnosis of celiac disease on a gluten-free diet for more than 1 year undergoing repeat duodenal biopsy were identified (group 2). All patients had duodenal biopsies and serologic analysis performed for immunoglobulin(Ig) A and antibodies to human immunoglobulin (Ig)A-tTG, IgA-gliadin, IgG-gliadin, and IgA-endomysial antibody. Results: Two thousand patients were recruited in the first group. Seventy-seven (3.9%) patients were diagnosed with new celiac disease. The sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value for IgA tTG were 90.9%, 90.9%, 28.6%, and 99.6%. When adopting a 2-step approach using tTG first and then EMA the sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value was 85.7%, 98.6%, 71.7%, and 99.7%, respectively. The use of nondeamidated IgA/IgG gliadin antibodies conferred no additional diagnostic benefit when considering the detection of adult celiac disease. In the second group 48 patients with celiac disease on a gluten-free diet were identified. Sixteen of 48 of these patients had persisting villous atrophy, but 7 of 16 (44%) had a normal tTG level. Conclusions: IgA tTG alone is a sensitive marker for celiac disease. A normal tTG level does not predict recovery of villous atrophy in patients with celiac disease on a gluten-free diet.

Aim To compare the predictive values of enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISAs) and indirect immunofluorescence (IIF) techniques for the detection of M2 anti-mitochondrial antibodies. Methods Commercial ELISAs are widely available for the detection of antimitochondrial antibody subtypes in primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC). We compared the results from two ELISAs (one recombinant, one purified antigen) with those from two IIF methods in a well-defined cohort of PBC patients and in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus, Sjögren's syndrome, sicca syndrome, systemic sclerosis, rheumatoid arthritis and blood donor controls. Results There was good correlation between a rodent substrate IIF and ELISA A ( r = 0·9134), but poor correlation with ELISA B ( r = 0·5999), which produced many false-positive results in the control population. We show that rodent IIF alone or human epithelial cell (HEp-2000®) screening with confirmation by ELISA produce similar predictive values for PBC and require lesser degrees of skilled interpretation of IIF patterns. Conclusions We conclude that the specificities of IIF are greater than the ELISA methods (99% versus 85-97%), although the ELISAs are slightly more sensitive in biopsy-proven PBC. Careful in-house validation of all new ELISA technologies is mandatory for good laboratory practice, but IIF in experienced hands remains an effective and specific assay.

ANA IIF is an effective screening assay in patients with clinical features of SLE and will detect most anti-ssDNA, anti-dsDNA, ENAs, and other autoantibodies. False positives are common. The clinical importance cannot be extrapolated from the ANA titre or pattern, although higher titres (> 1/160) are more likely to be important. HEp-2 cells are the most sensitive substrate for ANA detection, but this must be balanced against an increased incidence of insignificant positivity. ANA positive samples should be subjected to more specific assays for the diagnosis of SLE. A combination of ENA (Ro/La/Sm/RNP) and dsDNA assays will detect most patients with SLE as long as the characteristics of the assays used are well understood. ESR and CRP measurements provide useful additional information. Sjogren's syndrome and MCTD will produce overlapping serology with SLE, and anti-dsDNA titres are sometimes seen in autoimmune hepatitis and rheumatoid arthritis. All results should be reported in the light of the clinical details, by an experienced immunologist. A suggested diagnostic protocol is outlined in fig 1. The type of assay used crucially influences the predictive value of the tests. ELISA technology dominates routine laboratory practice, but tends to produce more false positive and true weak positive results, which may reduce the PPV of the test. This can be minimised by using IgG specific conjugates and careful assay validation. The NPV for SLE [figure: see text] is high for most assays but the PPV varies. Where necessary, laboratories should use crithidia or Farr dsDNA assays to confirm dubious ELISA dsDNA results, and ID/IB to confirm dubious ENA results. For monitoring, a precise, quantitative assay is required. It is unclear whether the detection of IgM or low affinity antibodies has a role here. A combination of anti-dsDNA, C3, C4, CRP, and ESR assays provides the most useful clinical information. Anti-ssDNA assays are likely to be useful, and are potentially more robust than anti-dsDNA assays, but require more validation. Local validation of individual assays and EQA participation is essential. Not all assays that apparently measure the same antibody specificities have equal clinical relevance, even within a single technology. Insufficient international or national reference preparations are currently available for many antibody specificities to enable effective standardisation. Quality assurance schemes reveal large differences in units reported by different assays for some analytes, even when calibrated against an IRP or equivalent reference preparation. Serial results can therefore only be compared from the same laboratory at present. Most autoantibodies increase during active disease, but few prospective data are currently available to justify treatment on the basis of rising titres. Further randomised prospective studies are required to examine the importance of antibody isotype and affinity in the monitoring of SLE by individual assay methods. The most important aspect of the appropriate use of laboratory assays is to become familiar with the limitations of the technology currently in use in your local laboratory, and to consult with your clinical immunologist in cases of doubt, preferably before commencing serological screening.

Haematology/Immunology Research Group, Christchurch Hospital and Christchurch School of Medicine, Christchurch, New Zealand ICRF Laboratories, Institute of Molecular Medicine, Oxford, GB Dendritic cells (DC) are potent stimulators of primary T lymphocyte responses to foreign antigen. The initial DC-T lymphocyte interaction involves the binding of the adhesion molecule leukocyte function antigen-1 (LFA-1; CDlldCD18) on the T lymphocyte to an intercellular adhesion molecule (ICAM) on DC. Although blood and tonsil DC express ICAM-1 (CD54) and ICAM-2 (CD102) on their surface, anti-ICAM-1 and anti-ICAM-2 monoclonal antibodies (mAb) have little inhibitory activity on the DC-stimulated mixed leukocyte reaction (MLR). We therefore examined the expression of the more recently identified LFA-1 ligand, ICAM-3 (CD50), in comparison to ICAM-1 and ICAM-2 on blood DC and sought a functional role for ICAM-3 in DC-mediated T lympho- cyte responses. Resting blood DC expressed significantly more ICAM-3 than ICAM-1 or ICAM-2 as assessed by flow cytometry. Treatment of resting DC with interferon-y led to increased expression of ICAM-1; however, ICAM-2 and ICAM-3 levels remained relatively constant. Solid-phase recombinant chimeric molecules ICAM-1-, ICAM-2- and ICAM-3-Fc were able to co-stimulate CD4' T lymphocyte proliferation in conjunction with suboptimal solid-phase CD3 mAb 64.1. However, the anti-ICAM-3 mAb CAL 3.10 inhibited a DC- stimulated MLR to a greater extent than anti-ICAM-1 or anti-ICAM-2 reagents and appeared to act by blocking the DC ICAM-3- T lymphocyte LFA-1 interac- tion. As ICAM-3 is the predominant LFA-1 ligand on resting blood DC, we pos- tulate that DC may utilize ICAM-3 for initial DC- T lymphocyte interactions, and that ICAM-1, which is up-regulated upon DC activation, and/or ICAM-2, may contribute to DC migration or later phases of the T lymphocyte activation process.