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Importance Determination of optimal treatment durations for common infectious diseases is an important strategy to preserve antibiotic effectiveness. Objective To determine whether 7 days of treatment is noninferior to 14 days when using ciprofloxacin or trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole to treat urinary tract infection (UTI) in afebrile men. Design, Setting, and Participants Randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled noninferiority trial of afebrile men with presumed symptomatic UTI treated with ciprofloxacin or trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole at 2 US Veterans Affairs medical centers (enrollment, April 2014 through December 2019; final follow-up, January 28, 2020). Of 1058 eligible men, 272 were randomized. Interventions Participants continued the antibiotic prescribed by their treating clinician for 7 days of treatment and were randomized to receive continued antibiotic therapy (n = 136) or placebo (n = 136) for days 8 to 14 of treatment. Main Outcomes and Measures The prespecified primary outcome was resolution of UTI symptoms by 14 days after completion of active antibiotic treatment. A noninferiority margin of 10% was selected. The as-treated population (participants who took ≥26 of 28 doses and missed no more than 2 consecutive doses) was used for the primary analysis, and a secondary analysis included all patients as randomized, regardless of treatment adherence. Secondary outcomes included recurrence of UTI symptoms and/or adverse events within 28 days of stopping study medication. Results Among 272 patients (median [interquartile range] age, 69 [62-73] years) who were randomized, 100% completed the trial and 254 (93.4%) were included in the primary as-treated analysis. Symptom resolution occurred in 122/131 (93.1%) participants in the 7-day group vs 111/123 (90.2%) in the 14-day group (difference, 2.9% [1-sided 97.5% CI, –5.2% to ∞]), meeting the noninferiority criterion. In the secondary as-randomized analysis, symptom resolution occurred in 125/136 (91.9%) participants in the 7-day group vs 123/136 (90.4%) in the 14-day group (difference, 1.5% [1-sided 97.5% CI, –5.8% to ∞]) Recurrence of UTI symptoms occurred in 13/131 (9.9%) participants in the 7-day group vs 15/123 (12.9%) in the 14-day group (difference, –3.0% [95% CI, –10.8% to 6.2%];P = .70). Adverse events occurred in 28/136 (20.6%) participants in the 7-day group vs 33/136 (24.3%) in the 14-day group. Conclusions and Relevance Among afebrile men with suspected UTI, treatment with ciprofloxacin or trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole for 7 days was noninferior to 14 days of treatment with regard to resolution of UTI symptoms by 14 days after antibiotic therapy. The findings support the use of a 7-day course of ciprofloxacin or trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole as an alternative to a 14-day course for treatment of afebrile men with UTI. Trial Registration ClinicalTrials.gov identifier:NCT01994538

Anti-nerve growth factor (anti-NGF) therapy has shown significant promise in attenuating several types of skeletal pain. However, whether anti-NGF therapy changes the level of physical activity in individuals with or without skeletal pain is largely unknown. Here, automated day/night activity boxes monitored the effects of anti-NGF treatment on physical activity in normal young (3 months old) and aging (18-23 months old) mice and mice with bone fracture pain. Although aging mice were clearly less active and showed loss of bone mass compared with young mice, anti-NGF treatment had no effect on any measure of day/night activity in either the young or aging mice. By contrast, in mice with femoral fracture pain, anti-NGF treatment produced a clear increase (10%-27%) in horizontal activity, vertical rearing, and velocity of travel compared with the Fracture + Vehicle group. These results suggest, just as in humans, mice titrate their level of physical activity to their level of skeletal pain. The level of skeletal pain may in part be determined by the level of free NGF that seems to rise after injury but not normal aging of the skeleton. In terms of bone healing, animals that received anti-NGF showed an increase in the size of calcified callus but no increase in the number of displaced fractures or time to cortical union. As physical activity is the best nondrug treatment for many patients with skeletal pain, anti-NGF may be useful in reducing pain and promoting activity in these patients.

Many researchers have used the standard Iowa Gambling Task (IGT) to assess decision-making in adolescence given increased risk-taking during this developmental period. Most studies are cross-sectional and do not observe behavioral trajectories over time, limiting interpretation. This longitudinal study investigated healthy adolescents' and young adults' IGT performance across a 10-year span. A total of 189 individuals (aged 9-23 at baseline) completed a baseline session and were followed at 2-year intervals yielding 5 time-points. IGT deck contingencies were shuffled over time to reduce practice effects. IGT performance (good minus bad decisions) was measured at each assessment point and separated into 3 metrics: overall performance (all blocks), decision-making under ambiguity (blocks 1 and 2), and decision-making under risk (blocks 3, 4, and 5). Covariates included estimated intelligence and affective dispositions as measured by the Behavioral Inhibition and Activation System (BIS/BAS) Scales. A linear effect of age yielded the best fit when comparing linear and quadratic effects of age on overall IGT performance. Age and intelligence positively predicted overall performance, whereas affective approach tendencies (BAS) negatively predicted overall performance. Practice effects were observed and controlled for. Models of ambiguity and risk metrics yielded different patterns of significant predictors. Age predicted better performance and affective approach tendencies predicted worse performance for both metrics. Intelligence was a significant predictor for risk, but not ambiguity. This longitudinal study extends prior work by showing age-related improvements in reward-based decision-making and associating those improvements with cognitive and affective variables. Implications of the results for adolescent development are discussed. (PsycINFO Database Record

Background and Purpose BIO 300 nanosuspension (Humanetics Corporation) is being developed as a medical countermeasure (MCM) for the mitigation of the delayed effects of acute radiation exposure (DEARE), specifically pneumonitis and fibrosis of the lung. The objective of this study was to determine the best dose and treatment duration of BIO 300 to mitigate lung injury and improve the likelihood for survival in C57L/J mice exposed to whole thorax lung irradiation (WTLI). Experimental Approach Age and sex-matched C57L/J mice received a single dose of 11.0 or 12.5 Gy WTLI. BIO 300 (200 or 400 mg/kg; oral gavage) was administered daily starting 24 hours post-exposure for a duration of 2, 4, 6, or, in some cases, 10 weeks. Non-treated controls were included for comparison in both sexes. Animals were observed daily for signs of major morbidity. Respiratory function was assessed biweekly. At the time of euthanasia, lungs were collected, weighed, and paraffin embedded for histologic evaluation. Key Results BIO 300 administered at an oral dose of 400 mg/kg for four to six weeks starting 24 hours post-WTLI reduced morbidity associated with WTLI. The improvement in survival correlated with reduced respiratory frequency and enhanced pause (Penh). The irradiated lungs of mice treated with BIO 300 (400 mg/kg) for 4 to 6 weeks displayed less morphologic damage and airway loss due to edema, congestion, and fibrotic scarring than the untreated, irradiated controls. Conclusion and Implications BIO 300 is a promising MCM candidate to mitigate pneumonitis/fibrosis when administered daily for 4-6 weeks starting 24 hours post-exposure.

There exist several dozen lines of transgenic mice that express human amyloid-β protein precursor (AβPP) with Alzheimer's disease (AD)-linked mutations. AβPP transgenic mouse lines differ in the types and amounts of Aβ that they generate and in their spatiotemporal patterns of expression of Aβ assemblies, providing a toolkit to study Aβ amyloidosis and the influence of Aβ aggregation on brain function. More complete quantitative descriptions of the types of Aβ assemblies present in transgenic mice and in humans during disease progression should add to our understanding of how Aβ toxicity in mice relates to the pathogenesis of AD. Here, we provide a direct quantitative comparison of amyloid plaque burdens and plaque sizes in four lines of AβPP transgenic mice. We measured the fraction of cortex and hippocampus occupied by dense-core plaques, visualized by staining with Thioflavin S, in mice from young adulthood through advanced age. We found that the plaque burdens among the transgenic lines varied by an order of magnitude: at 15 months of age, the oldest age studied, the median cortical plaque burden in 5XFAD mice was already ∼4.5 times that of 21-month-old Tg2576 mice and ∼15 times that of 21-24-month-old rTg9191 mice. Plaque-size distributions changed across the lifespan in a line- and region-dependent manner. We also compared the dense-core plaque burdens in the mice to those measured in a set of pathologically-confirmed AD cases from the Nun Study. Cortical plaque burdens in Tg2576, APPSwePS1ΔE9, and 5XFAD mice eventually far exceeded those measured in the human cohort.

Background Trials show that shorter-duration therapy is effective for many infectious diseases, but the optimal duration for UTI in men is unknown. Observational data suggests shorter-duration performs as well as longer-duration therapy, but trial data shows men with febrile UTI (a small but important subset of patients) do worse with 7 vs. 14 days of therapy. We performed a randomized controlled trial of afebrile men with UTI to determine whether 7 days of treatment was non-inferior to 14 days. Methods Men with symptomatic UTI at 2 VA hospitals were enrolled. Inclusion criteria included male gender, outpatient treatment, prescribed 7 to 14 days of ciprofloxacin or trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, and new onset of at least 1 of: dysuria, frequency, urgency, hematuria, costovertebral angle tenderness, and perineal, flank, or suprapubic pain. Exclusion criteria included UTI treatment in the past 14 days, symptoms due to a non-UTI diagnosis, and inadequate empiric treatment. Enrolled subjects took their clinically-prescribed medications days 1–7, then study medication days 8–14. Study medications were placebo or the originally prescribed antimicrobial, different in appearance from the original medication. The primary outcome was percentage of subjects with symptom resolution 14 days after completion of active therapy. Secondary outcomes included recurrence of UTI and adverse events. A pre-specified minimally clinically significant difference of 10% was selected, with a P value of 0.05 considered to be significant. Primary analysis was per-protocol; intention-to-treat performed as secondary analysis. Results Enrollment totaled 273, with 272 randomized to 7 (n = 136) vs. 14 (n = 136) days of antimicrobials. Mean age was 67.8 (SD 11.6), with a mean Charlson comorbidity index of 1.3 (SD 1.6). Overall, 254 subjects were in the per-protocol analysis. Symptom resolution occurred in 122 of 131 (93.1%) subjects receiving 7 days treatment, and 111 of 123 (90.2%) receiving 14 days (difference 2.9%, 95% CI -4.7 to 10.5% P = .50), confirming non-inferiority. Intention-to-treat analysis (n = 272) showed similar results. Conclusion Treatment with 7 days of antimicrobials was non-inferior to 14 days for symptom resolution. Afebrile men with UTI should not be treated beyond 7 days. Disclosures All Authors: No reported disclosures

We surveyed resident physicians at 2 academic medical centers regarding urinary testing and treatment as they progressed through training. Demographics and self-reported confidence were compared to overall knowledge using clinical vignette-based questions. Overall knowledge was 40% in 2011 and increased to 48%, 55%, and 63% in subsequent years (PInfect Control Hosp Epidemiol 2018;39:616–618

Escherichia coli sequence type 13 (ST131), an emergent cause of multidrug-resistant extraintestinal infections, has important phylogenetic subsets, notably the H 30 and H 30Rx subclones, with distinctive resistance profiles and, possibly, clinical associations. To clarify the local prevalence of these ST131 subclones and their associations with antimicrobial resistance, ecological source, and virulence traits, we extensively characterized 233 consecutive E. coli clinical isolates (July and August 2013) from the University of Minnesota Medical Center-Fairview Infectious Diseases and Diagnostic Laboratory, Minneapolis, MN, which serves three adjacent facilities (a children's hospital and low- and high-acuity adult facilities). ST131 accounted for 26% of the study isolates (more than any other clonal group), was distributed similarly by facility, and was closely associated with ciprofloxacin resistance and extended-spectrum β-lactamase (ESBL) production. The H 30 and H 30Rx subclones accounted for most ST131 isolates and for the association of ST131 with fluoroquinolone resistance and ESBL production. Unlike ST131 per se , these subclones were distributed differentially by hospital, being most prevalent at the high-acuity adult facility and were absent from the children's hospital. The virulence gene profiles of ST131 and its subclones were distinctive and more extensive than those of other fluoroquinolone-resistant or ESBL-producing isolates. Within ST131, bla CTX-M-15 was confined to H 30Rx isolates and other bla CTX-M variants to non-Rx H 30 isolates. Pulsed-field gel electrophoresis documented a predominance of globally distributed pulsotypes and no local outbreak pattern. These findings help clarify the epidemiology, ecology, and bacterial correlates of the H 30 and H 30Rx ST131 subclones by documenting a high overall prevalence but significant segregation by facility, strong associations with fluoroquinolone resistance and specific ESBL variants, and distinctive virulence gene associations that may confer fitness advantages over other resistant E. coli .

The recent expansion of the H 30 subclone of Escherichia coli sequence type 131 (ST131) and its CTX-M-15-associated H 30Rx subset remains unexplained. Although ST131 H 30 typically exhibits fluoroquinolone resistance, so do multiple other E. coli lineages that have not expanded similarly. To determine whether H 30 isolates have more intense fluoroquinolone resistance than other fluoroquinolone-resistant E. coli isolates and to identify possible mechanisms, we determined the MICs for four fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, and norfloxacin) among 89 well-characterized, genetically diverse fluoroquinolone-resistant E. coli isolates (48 non- H 30 and 41 H 30 [23 H 30Rx and 18 H 30 non-Rx]). We compared the MICs with the H 30 and H 30Rx status, the presence/number of nonsynonymous mutations in gyrA , parC , and parE , the presence of aac ( 6 ′)- 1b-cr (an aminoglycoside/fluoroquinolone agent-modifying enzyme), and the efflux pump activity (measured as organic solvent tolerance [OST]). Among 1,518 recent E. coli clinical isolates, ST131 H 30 predominated clonally, both overall and among the fluoroquinolone-resistant isolates. Among the 89 study isolates, compared with non- H 30 isolates, H 30 isolates exhibited categorically higher MICs for all four fluoroquinolone agents, higher absolute ciprofloxacin and norfloxacin MICs, more nonsynonymous mutations in gyrA , parC , and parE (specifically gyrA D87N, parC E84V, and parE I529L), and a numerically higher prevalence of ( H 30Rx-associated) aac ( 6 ′)- 1b-cr but lower OST scores. All putative resistance mechanisms were significantly associated with the MICs [for aac ( 6 ′)- 1b-cr : ciprofloxacin and norfloxacin only]. parC D87N corresponded with ST131 H 30 and parE I529L with ST131 generally. Thus, more intense fluoroquinolone resistance may provide ST131 H 30, especially H 30Rx [if aac ( 6 ′)- 1b-cr positive], with subtle fitness advantages over other fluoroquinolone-resistant E. coli strains. This urges both parsimonious fluoroquinolone use and a search for other fitness-enhancing traits within ST131 H 30.

A double-blind crossover pilot trial tested the hypothesis that botanically derived calcium could demonstrate greater influence over calcium metabolism markers compared with a nonplant-derived calcium carbonate supplement or placebo. Twelve fasting female subjects received a single oral dose of Aquamin F™ (derived from the marine algal Lithothamnion sp.), or calcium carbonate, or placebo. Blood and urine samples were collected at baseline and over 12 h to evaluate ionized and total calcium and parathyroid hormone (PTH). Subjects treated with Aquamin F demonstrated significantly greater urinary clearance of calcium after 12 h compared with placebo (P = .004). Following a meal at 90 min, subjects treated with Aquamin F demonstrated a more prolonged suppression of serum PTH concentration (significantly lower than placebo at 90, 120, and 240 min). Calcium carbonate provided an intermediate response; urinary clearance was not significantly different from placebo treatment and PTH was only significantly lower than placebo at 90 min. Aquamin F may demonstrate greater influence over these markers of calcium metabolism than calcium carbonate or placebo, as suggested by a greater calciuric response and a more prolonged suppression of serum PTH concentrations following a meal in premenopausal women.

Supplemental Digital Content is Available in the Text. Mice with bone cancer have reduced peak day/night activity. Therapeutically blocking this decline may improve the activity level of patients with painful bone metastases., Introduction: Cancer-induced bone pain (CIBP) is the most common type of pain with cancer. In humans, this pain can be difficult to control and highly disabling. A major problem with CIBP in humans is that it increases on weight-bearing and/or movement of a tumor-bearing bone limiting the activity and functional status of the patient. Currently, there is less data concerning whether similar negative changes in activity occur in rodent models of CIBP. Objectives: To determine whether there are marked changes in activity in a rodent model of CIBP and compare this to changes in skin hypersensitivity. Methods: Osteosarcoma cells were injected and confined to 1 femur of the adult male mouse. Every 7 days, spontaneous horizontal and vertical activities were assessed over a 20-hour day and night period using automated activity boxes. Mechanical hypersensitivity of the hind paw skin was assessed using von Frey testing. Results: As the tumor cells grew within the femur, there was a significant decline in horizontal and vertical activity during the times of the day/night when the mice are normally most active. Mice also developed significant hypersensitivity in the skin of the hind paw in the tumor-bearing limb. Conclusion: Even when the tumor is confined to a single load-bearing bone, CIBP drives a significant loss of activity, which increases with disease progression. Understanding the mechanisms that drive this reduction in activity may allow the development of therapies that allow CIBP patients to better maintain their activity and functional status.

Background Echocardiography is fundamental for diagnosing infective endocarditis (IE) in patients with Staphylococcus aureus bacteremia (SAB), but whether all such patients require transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) is controversial. Methods We identified SAB cases between February 2008 and April 2012. We compared sensitivity and specificity of transthoracic echocardiography (TTE) and TEE for evidence of IE, and we determined impacts of IE risk factors and TTE image quality on comparative sensitivities of TTE and TEE and their impact on clinical decision making. Results Of 215 evaluable SAB cases, 193 (90%) had TTE and 130 (60%) had TEE. In 119 cases with both tests, IE was diagnosed in 29 (24%), for whom endocardial involvement was evident in 25 (86%) by TEE, vs only 6 (21%) by TTE (P < .001). Transesophageal echocardiography was more sensitive than TTE regardless of risk factors. Even among the 66 cases with adequate or better quality TTE images, sensitivity was only 4 of 17 (24%) for TTE, vs 16 of 17 (94%) for TEE (P < .001). Among 130 patients with TEE, the TEE results, alone or with TTE results, influenced treatment duration in 56 (43%) cases and led to valve surgery in at least 4 (6%). It is notable that, despite vigorous efforts to obtain both tests routinely, TEE was not done in 86 cases (40%) for various reasons, including pathophysiological contraindications (14%), patient refusal or other patient-related factors (16%), and provider declination or system issues (10%). Conclusions Patients with SAB should undergo TEE when possible to detect evidence for IE, especially if the results might affect management.

© 2014 The Authors European Journal of Heart Failure © 2014 European Society of Cardiology. Aims: Plasma volume (PV) expansion hallmarks worsening chronic heart failure (CHF) but no non-invasive means of quantifying volume status exists. Because weight and haematocrit are related to PV, they can be used to calculate relative PV status (PVS). We tested the validity and prognostic utility of calculated PVS in CHF patients. Methods and results: First, we evaluated the agreement between calculated actual PV (aPV) and aPV levels measured using 125 Iodine-human serum albumin. Second, we derived PVS as: [(calculated aPV - ideal PV)/ideal PV] x 100%. Third, we assessed the prognostic implications of PVS in 5002 patients from the Valsartan in Heart Failure Trial (Val-HeFT), and validated this in another 246 routine CHF outpatients. On analysis, calculated and measured aPV values correlated significantly in 119 normal subjects and 30 CHF patients. In the Val-HeFT cohort, mean (+SD) PVS was -9 ± 8% and related to volume biomarkers such as brain natriuretic peptide (BNP). Over 2 years, 977 (20%) patients died. Plasma volume status was associated with death and first morbid events in a 'J-shaped' fashion with the highest risk seen with a PVS > -4%. Stratification into PVS quartiles confirmed that a PVS > -4% was associated with increased mortality (unadjusted hazard ratio 1.65, 95% confidence interval 1.44-1.88, χ 2 = 54, P < 0.001) even after adjusting for 22 variables, including brain natriuretic peptide. These results were mirrored in the validation cohort. Conclusions: Relative PVS calculated from simple clinical indices reflects the degree to which patients have deviated from their ideal PV and independently relates to outcomes. The utility of PVS-driven CHF management needs further evaluation.

To identify possible explanations for the recent global emergence of Escherichia coli sequence type (ST) 131 (ST131), we analyzed temporal trends within ST131 O25 for antimicrobial resistance, virulence genes, biofilm formation, and the H 30 and H 30-Rx subclones. For this, we surveyed the WHO E. coli and Klebsiella Centre's E. coli collection (1957 to 2011) for ST131 isolates, characterized them extensively, and assessed them for temporal trends. Overall, antimicrobial resistance increased temporally in prevalence and extent, due mainly to the recent appearance of the H 30 (1997) and H 30-Rx (2005) ST131 subclones. In contrast, neither the total virulence gene content nor the prevalence of biofilm production increased temporally, although non- H 30 isolates increasingly qualified as extraintestinal pathogenic E. coli (ExPEC). Whereas virotype D occurred from 1968 forward, virotypes A and C occurred only after 2000 and 2002, respectively, in association with the H30 and H30 -Rx subclones, which were characterized by multidrug resistance (including extended-spectrum-beta-lactamase [ESBL] production: H 30-Rx) and absence of biofilm production. Capsular antigen K100 occurred exclusively among H 30-Rx isolates (55% prevalence). Pulsotypes corresponded broadly with subclones and virotypes. Thus, ST131 should be regarded not as a unitary entity but as a group of distinctive subclones, with its increasing antimicrobial resistance having a strong clonal basis, i.e., the emergence of the H 30 and H 30-Rx ST131 subclones, rather than representing acquisition of resistance by diverse ST131 strains. Distinctive characteristics of the H 30-Rx subclone—including specific virulence genes ( iutA , afa and dra , kpsII ), the K100 capsule, multidrug resistance, and ESBL production—possibly contributed to epidemiologic success, and some (e.g., K100) might serve as vaccine targets.

Vancomycin dose selection is challenging in the spinal cord injury (SCI) population because of the difficulty in accurately estimating the renal function. Creatinine-based equations have been shown to be unreliable in this patient population. Adjusted equations designed for patients with SCI have not been well studied. Cystatin C is an alternative marker of renal function that is less affected by muscle mass and may offer improvement in estimating renal function leading to improved initial dose selection.To compare the accuracy of serum creatinine- and serum cystatin C-based equations used in a pharmacokinetic (PK) model to predict steady-state serum vancomycin concentration in an SCI population. The rationale for this study is the need for an improved predictive model to guide initial vancomycin dose design before the availability of a measured steady-state serum concentration.Patients with SCI receiving vancomycin with measured serum creatinine, cystatin C, and steady-state serum vancomycin concentration were identified. Serum creatinine- and cystatin C-based equations to estimate renal function were substituted into a population-based PK model to predict steady state-serum vancomycin concentration. Predictions using each equation in the model were compared with the measured steady-state serum vancomycin concentration. Predictive performances using each equation in the PK model were compared.The final study population included 37 patients with SCI. The Chronic Kidney Disease Epidemiology Collaboration cystatin C equation provided significantly less bias, greater precision, and superior accuracy when used in the PK model.In the SCI population, the use of Chronic Kidney Disease Epidemiology Collaboration cystatin C equation may improve initial vancomycin dosing. Further study into this potential is encouraged.

The objective of the study consisted of comparing lifetime prevalence rates and odds ratios of anxiety, mood, and psychotic disorders in adopted-versus-non-adopted people in a nationally representative sample. The data were drawn from the National Epidemiological Survey on Alcohol and Related Conditions (NESARC). The main outcome measure was the prevalence of lifetime internalizing psychiatric disorders in adopted (n = 378) versus non-adopted (n = 42,503) individuals. Adoptees and non-adoptees were compared to estimate the odds of lifetime internalizing disorders using logistic regression analyses. Adoptees had higher prevalence rates of several lifetime mood and anxiety disorders compared with non-adoptees, with a 1.61-fold increase (95% CI 1.29–2.02) in the odds of any mood disorder and a 1.49-fold increase (95% CI 1.18–1.89) in the odds of any anxiety disorder compared with non-adoptees. Regarding specific mood and anxiety disorders, adoptees had increased odds of major depressive disorder, bipolar I disorder, panic disorder without agoraphobia, specific phobia, and generalized anxiety disorder. Disorders not differing between adoptees and non-adoptees included dysthymia, bipolar II disorder, panic disorder with agoraphobia, social phobia, and psychotic disorder. One adoption-specific risk factor was associated with lifetime mood disorder (i.e., Asian/Pacific Island). In conclusion, adoptees in a large sample from the general population had higher rates of mood and anxiety disorders compared to non-adoptees.

Prior studies suggest an association between stressful life events and fractures that may be mediated by BMD. In the current study, risk of accelerated hip BMD loss was higher in older men with any type of stressful life event and increased with the number of types of stressful life events.Prior studies suggest that stressful life events may increase adverse health outcomes, including falls and possibly fractures. The current study builds on these findings and examines whether stressful life events are associated with increased bone loss.Four thousand three hundred eighty-eight men aged ≥65 years in the Osteoporotic Fractures in Men study completed total hip bone mineral density (BMD) measures at baseline and visit 2, approximately 4.6 years later, and self-reported stressful life events data mid-way between baseline and visit 2, and at visit 2. We used linear regression to model the association of stressful life events with concurrent annualized total hip BMD loss, and log binomial regression or Poisson regression to model risk of concurrent accelerated BMD loss (1 SD more than mean annualized change).Men (75.3 %) reported ≥1 type of stressful life event, including 43.3 % with ≥2 types of stressful life events. Mean annualized BMD loss was -0.36 % (SD 0.88), and 13.9 % of men were categorized with accelerated BMD loss (about 5.7 % or more total loss). Rate of annualized BMD loss increased with the number of types of stressful life events after adjustment for age (p 0.001), but not after multivariable adjustment (p = 0.07). Multivariable-adjusted risk of accelerated BMD loss increased with the number of types of stressful life events (RR, 1.10 [95 % confidence interval (CI), 1.04-1.16]) per increase of one type of stressful life event). Fracture risk was not significantly different between stressful life event-accelerated bone loss subgroups (p = 0.08).In these older men, stressful life events were associated with a small, dose-related increase in risk of concurrent accelerated hip bone loss. Low frequency of fractures limited assessment of whether rapid bone loss mediates any association of stressful life events with incident fractures. Future studies are needed to confirm these findings and to investigate the mechanism that may underlie this association.

Background— Soluble ST2 (sST2), a biomarker related to inflammation, is associated with outcomes of patients with heart failure. In-depth analyses of the relationship among sST2, changes in sST2, and patient outcomes are reported. Methods and Results— sST2 was measured at baseline (n=1650), 4 months (n=1345), and 12 months (n=1094) in Valsartan Heart Failure Trial. Baseline sST2 averaged 28.7±16.2 ng/mL, significantly ( P 33.2 ng/mL. Each segment of the sST2 distribution was significantly ( P P Conclusions— In this study, baseline sST2 was nonlinearly associated with patient outcomes but did not provide substantial prognostic information when added to a clinical prediction model that included N-terminal probrain natriuretic peptide. An increase but not decrease in sST2 was independently associated with outcomes. Additional research is needed to determine whether monitoring ST2 levels can improve patient outcomes.

The rising prevalence of resistance to first-line antimicrobial agents in Escherichia coli , which has paralleled the emergence of E. coli sequence type ST131, has created a need for alternative oral options for use in treating outpatients with infections such as cystitis and chronic prostatitis. Accordingly, we determined susceptibility to six alternative oral agents (azithromycin, chloramphenicol, doxycycline, fosfomycin, minocycline, and rifampin) by Etest or disk diffusion for 120 recently obtained E. coli clinical isolates from Veterans Affairs Medical Centers across the United States. Isolates were randomly selected in three subgroups of 40 isolates each based on coresistance to fluoroquinolones with and without extended-spectrum cephalosporins (ESCs). Results were stratified according to trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) phenotype. Overall, the prevalence of susceptible (or susceptible plus intermediate) isolates varied by agent, with rifampin being lowest (0%), fosfomycin highest (98 to 99%), and others in the mid-range (37 to 88%). Substantial proportions of isolates (15 to 27%) yielded intermediate results for azithromycin, chloramphenicol, doxycycline, and minocycline. Among isolates resistant (versus susceptible) to fluoroquinolones with or without ESCs, susceptibility to the above four agents declined significantly among non-ST131 isolates but not ST131 isolates. In contrast, in the presence of resistance to TMP-SMZ, susceptibility to azithromycin, doxycycline, and minocycline was significantly reduced among both ST131 and non-ST131 isolates. These findings identify potential alternative oral agents for use with E. coli isolates resistant to fluoroquinolones, ESCs, and/or TMP-SMZ and suggest that determination of ST131 status could help guide initial antimicrobial selection, pending susceptibility results.

BACKGROUND Preclinical studies show that opioids stimulate angiogenesis and tumor progression through the mu opioid receptor (MOR). Although MOR is overexpressed in several human malignancies, the effect of chronic opioid requirement on cancer progression or survival has not been examined in humans. METHODS We performed a retrospective analysis on 113 patients identified in the Minneapolis VA Tumor Registry (test cohort) and 480 patients from the national VA Central Cancer Registry (validation cohort) who had been diagnosed with stage IV prostate cancer between 1995 and 2010 to examine whether MOR expression or opioid requirement is associated with disease progression and survival. All opioids were converted to oral morphine equivalents for comparison. Laser scanning confocal microscopy was used to analyze MOR immunoreactivity in prostate cancer biopsies. The effects of variables on outcomes were analyzed in univariable and multivariable models. RESULTS In patients with metastatic prostate cancer, MOR expression and opioid requirement were independently associated with inferior progression-free survival (hazard ratio [HR] 1.65, 95% confidence interval [CI] 1.33-2.07, P

(See the Editorial Commentary by Lautenbach on pages 1266–9.) Escherichia coli causes diverse extraintestinal infections, including urinary tract infection, bacteremia, and meningitis, resulting in considerable morbidity, mortality, and increased costs [1]. Management of such infections is complicated by the rising prevalence of resistance to preferred antimicrobial agents such as trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ), fluoroquinolones (FQs), and extended-spectrum cephalosporins [1–4]. Contributing to this problem is E. coli sequence type 131 (ST131), a newly emerged, disseminated lineage of multidrug-resistant E. coli [2, 5–9]. In recent surveys ST131 has accounted for up to 10%–27% of the total clinical E. coli population in various locales, and for up to 52%–67% of all extended-spectrum β-lactamase (ESBL)–producing or FQ-resistant (FQ-R) E. coli [2, 10–12]. The Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) operates the largest integrated healthcare system in the United States. [13]. Escherichia coli infections, especially urinary tract infections, are quite common among veterans [14]. Based on associations of ST131 with older age and health care contact [15], and the high prevalence of these characteristics among veterans, we hypothesized that ST131 may contribute importantly to antimicrobial resistance in E. coli among veterans. Accordingly, we assessed the prevalence, geographic distribution, and contribution to antimicrobial resistance of E. coli ST131 among US veterans during 2010–2011 at multiple VA medical centers (VAMCs) across the United States, and explored associations of ST131 with source and fitness-promoting bacterial traits.

Protein translation initiation is controlled by eukaryotic initiation factor 4E (eIF-4E) binding protein 1 (4E-BP1). Phosphorylated 4E-BP1 dissociates from eIF-4E, allowing translation of transcripts mediating cell cycling, survival, and angiogenesis. The expression and phosphorylation of 4E-BP1, and influence on prognosis of diffuse large B cell lymphoma (DLBCL), is unknown. Because at least some patients with low-risk (International Prognostic Index score 0–2) DLBCL treated with standard anthracycline-based chemotherapy experience a short survival, we examined if 4E-BP1 expression and phosphorylation may provide additional prognostic information in 35 patients with low-risk DLBCL. We examined their initial diagnostic pathology specimens for 4E-BP1 expression and phosphorylation using immunohistochemistry, and we correlated these with clinical outcomes. While 4E-BP1 was uniformly expressed, there was wide distribution in its level of phosphorylation (biological activity). 4E-BP1 phosphorylation correlated strongly with overall survival (OS; P = 0.007) and progression-free survival (PFS; P = 0.02) and was the most significant independent variable for both OS and PFS on multivariable analysis. Our findings suggest that immunohistochemical evaluation of 4E-BP1 phosphorylation may help refine the prognostication of patients with low-risk DLBCL. Prospective studies in an independent cohort of patients are warranted.

Aims This study was conducted to determine whether galectin-3, a β-galactoside-binding lectin, plays a role in the pathogenesis of heart failure (HF). Methods and results Galectin-3 was measured at baseline (n = 1650), after 4 months (n = 1346), and after 12 months (n = 1097) in the Valsartan Heart Failure Trial (Val-HeFT). Galectin-3 levels at baseline ranged from 4.8 to 53 ng/mL. Higher levels were associated with features of worse HF. In a fully adjusted Cox regression model comprising 23 other prognostic variables, baseline galectin-3 was not associated with the risks of all-cause mortality, the composite of the first morbid event, or hospitalization for HF. However, when changes in galectin-3 over time were examined, the increases in galectin-3 between baseline and 4 months were independently and significantly associated with the risks of subsequent all-cause mortality, first morbid event, and hospitalizations for HF, even after adjusting for all baseline and concurrent changes in all variables including estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) and NT-proBNP. The strongest correlate of galectin-3 levels was eGFR, which accounted for 20% of the variability in galectin-3 levels at baseline. There was a significant interaction (P = 0.03) between baseline galectin-3 and the effect of valsartan on hospitalizations for HF. Valsartan caused a significant 44% reduction in hospitalizations for HF in patients with galectin-3 levels below the median level of 16.2 ng/mL, but not in patients with levels above the median. Conclusions Galectin-3 levels are elevated in a substantial proportion of patients with HF, particularly those with more severe HF and renal dysfunction. Galectin-3 increased over time in this cohort, and the increase was independently associated with worse outcomes. Valsartan use was associated with a reduction in hospitalizations for HF in patients with low galectin-3, but not in those with higher levels of galectin-3.

Alzheimer's disease begins about two decades before the onset of symptoms or neuron death, and is believed to be caused by pathogenic amyloid-β aggregates that initiate a cascade of molecular events culminating in widespread neurodegeneration. The microtubule binding protein tau may mediate the effects of amyloid-β in this cascade. Amyloid plaques comprised of insoluble, fibrillar amyloid-β aggregates are the most characteristic feature of Alzheimer's disease. However, the correspondence between the distribution of plaques and the pattern of neurodegeneration is tenuous. This discrepancy has stimulated the investigation of other amyloid-β aggregates, including soluble amyloid-β oligomers. Different soluble amyloid-β oligomers have been studied in several mouse models, but not systematically in humans. Here, we measured three amyloid-β oligomers previously described in mouse models-amyloid-β trimers, Aβ*56 and amyloid-β dimers-in brain tissue from 75 cognitively intact individuals, ranging from young children to the elderly, and 58 impaired subjects with mild cognitive impairment or probable Alzheimer's disease. As in mouse models, where amyloid-β trimers appear to be the fundamental amyloid-β assembly unit of Aβ*56 and are present in young mice prior to memory decline, amyloid-β trimers in humans were present in children and adolescents; their levels rose gradually with age and were significantly above baseline in subjects in their 70s. Aβ*56 levels were negligible in children and young adults, rose significantly above baseline in subjects in their 40s and increased steadily thereafter. Amyloid-β dimers were undetectable until subjects were in their 60s; their levels then increased sharply and correlated with plaque load. Remarkably, in cognitively intact individuals we found strong positive correlations between Aβ*56 and two pathological forms of soluble tau (tau-CP13 and tau-Alz50), and negative correlations between Aβ*56 and two postsynaptic proteins (drebrin and fyn kinase), but none between amyloid-β dimers or amyloid-β trimers and tau or synaptic proteins. Comparing impaired with age-matched unimpaired subjects, we found the highest levels of amyloid-β dimers, but the lowest levels of Aβ*56 and amyloid-β trimers, in subjects with probable Alzheimer's disease. In conclusion, in cognitively normal adults Aβ*56 increased ahead of amyloid-β dimers or amyloid-β trimers, and pathological tau proteins and postsynaptic proteins correlated with Aβ*56, but not amyloid-β dimers or amyloid-β trimers. We propose that Aβ*56 may play a pathogenic role very early in the pathogenesis of Alzheimer's disease.

Objective.To determine the fraction of unnecessary antimicrobial use among patients with current and/or recent Clostridium difficile infection (CDI).Design.Retrospective review from January 2004 through December 2006.Setting.Minneapolis Veterans Affairs Medical Center (MVAMC).Participants.Patients with new-onset CDI diagnosed at the MVAMC without another CDI diagnosis in the prior 30 days.Methods.Pharmacy and medical records were reviewed to identify incident CDI cases, non-CDI antimicrobial use during and up to 30 days after completion of CDI treatment, and patient characteristics. Two infectious disease physicians independently assessed non-CDI antimicrobial use, which was classified as unnecessary if not fully indicated. Factors associated with only unnecessary use were identified through univariable and multivariable analysis.Results.Of 246 patients with new-onset CDI, 141 (57%) received non-CDI antimicrobials during and/or after their CDI treatment, totaling 2,147 antimicrobial days and 445 antimicrobial courses. The two reviewers agreed regarding the necessity of antimicrobials in more than 99% of antimicrobial courses (85% initially, 14% after discussion). Seventy-seven percent of patients received at least 1 unnecessary antimicrobial dose, 26% of patients received only unnecessary antimicrobials, and 45% of total non-CDI antimicrobial days included unnecessary antimicrobials. The leading indications for unnecessary antimicrobial use were putative urinary tract infection and pneumonia. Drug classes frequently used unnecessarily were fluoroquinolones and β-lactams.Conclusions.Twenty-six percent of patients with recent CDI received only unnecessary (and therefore potentially avoidable) antimicrobials. Heightened awareness and caution are needed when antimicrobial therapy is contemplated for patients with recent CDI.

Infections with Staphylococcus aureus may be more frequent in subjects with active hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection. In this retrospective dual-cohort study, we sought to determine whether persons with active HCV infection (positive HCV antibody, detectable blood HCV RNA) were at greater risk of S. aureus infection than those with spontaneously resolved HCV infection (positive HCV antibody, negative blood HCV RNA). Based on prestudy power calculation, we included 231 subjects with active HCV and 116 subjects with resolved HCV infection. The two groups were well matched at baseline, except that subjects with active HCV had a higher mean Charlson’s comorbidity index (2.2 vs. 1.3; p < 0.0001). Cohorts were followed for a mean of 3.67 years. Thirty-one of the 231 (13%) subjects with active HCV infection developed ≥1 S. aureus infection(s) as compared to 4/116 (3.4%) subjects with resolved HCV (p = 0.004), with a trend towards more recurrent S. aureus infections in subjects with active HCV infection. The S. aureus infections were mostly serious, necessitating hospitalization and intravenous antibiotics. In the logistic regression, factors that independently predicted S. aureus infection were active HCV and Charlson’s comorbidity index. Our regression models confirmed that the enhanced susceptibility to S. aureus infections was related to active HCV infection and not attributable solely to the increased number of comorbidities [adjusted odds ratio (OR) = 3.3, 95% confidence interval (CI) 1.1–9.8; p = 0.03]. This study shows that subjects with active HCV infection have a significantly higher incidence of serious S. aureus infections than those with spontaneously resolved HCV, even after adjustment for comorbidities.

Background. Echocardiography is fundamental for diagnosing infective endocarditis (IE) in patients with Staphylococcus aureus bacteremia (SAB), but whether all such patients require transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) is controversial. Methods. We identified SAB cases between February 2008 and April 2012. We compared sensitivity and specificity of transthoracic echocardiography (TTE) and TEE for evidence of IE, and we determined impacts of IE risk factors and TTE image quality on comparative sensitivities of TTE and TEE and their impact on clinical decision making. Results. Of 215 evaluable SAB cases, 193 (90%) had TTE and 130 (60%) had TEE. In 119 cases with both tests, IE was diagnosed in 29 (24%), for whom endocardial involvement was evident in 25 (86%) by TEE, vs only 6 (21%) by TTE (P < .001). Transesophageal echocardiography was more sensitive than TTE regardless of risk factors. Even among the 66 cases with adequate or better quality TTE images, sensitivity was only 4 of 17 (24%) for TTE, vs 16 of 17 (94%) for TEE (P < .001). Among 130 patients with TEE, the TEE results, alone or with TTE results, influenced treatment duration in 56 (43%) cases and led to valve surgery in at least 4 (6%). It is notable that, despite vigorous efforts to obtain both tests routinely, TEE was not done in 86 cases (40%) for various reasons, including pathophysiological contraindications (14%), patient refusal or other patient-related factors (16%), and provider declination or system issues (10%). Conclusions. Patients with SAB should undergo TEE when possible to detect evidence for IE, especially if the results might affect management.

Recurrent Clostridium difficile infection (R-CDI) is common and difficult to treat, potentially necessitating fecal microbiota transplantation (FMT). Although C. difficile spores persist in the hospital environment and cause infection, little is known about their potential presence or importance in the household environment. Households of R-CDI subjects in the peri-FMT period and of geographically matched and age-matched controls were analyzed for the presence of C. difficile . Household environmental surfaces and fecal samples from humans and pets in the household were examined. Households of post-FMT subjects were also examined (environmental surfaces only). Participants were surveyed regarding their personal history and household cleaning habits. Species identity and molecular characteristics of presumptive C. difficile isolates from environmental and fecal samples were determined by using the Pro kit (Remel, USA), Gram staining, PCR, toxinotyping, tcdC gene sequencing, and pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE). Environmental cultures detected C. difficile on ≥1 surface in 8/8 (100%) peri-FMT households, versus 3/8 (38%) post-FMT households and 3/8 (38%) control households ( P = 0.025). The most common C. difficile -positive sites were the vacuum (11/27; 41%), toilet (8/30; 27%), and bathroom sink (5/29; 17%). C. difficile was detected in 3/36 (8%) fecal samples (two R-CDI subjects and one household member). Nine (90%) of 10 households with multiple C. difficile -positive samples had a single genotype present each. In conclusion, C. difficile was found in the household environment of R-CDI patients, but whether it was found as a cause or consequence of R-CDI is unknown. If household contamination leads to R-CDI, effective decontamination may be protective.

BACKGROUND: Antimicrobial removal devices in blood culture media are designed to remove antibiotics from the blood culture solution, thereby facilitating bacterial growth. How well these devices function clinically has not been established. METHODS: All blood drawn for culture from adult inpatients and emergency department visitors in a level I trauma center was placed in paired BACTEC Plus and BacT/Alert FAN culture media and studied simultaneously, consecutively, and prospectively between 1 February and 30 September 2011. All cultures were processed per standard laboratory protocols. RESULTS: Of 9395 total cultures collected, 1219 (13%) were positive, 831 were included, and 524 (33%) contained pathogens. BACTEC had a 4.5-hour faster detection time (P < .0001), and isolated exclusively 182 of 524 (35%; P < .001) pathogens, 136 of 345 (39%) of the gram-positive cocci (P < .001), 48 of 175 (27%; P = .02) of the gram-negative rods, 101 of 195 (52%) of Staphylococcus aureus (P < .001), and 59 of 120 (49%; P = .004) septic events. If active antibiotics had been dosed 0-4 or 4-48 hours prior to culture collection, the odds of that culture growing in BACTEC were 4.8- and 5.2-fold greater, respectively, than of growing in BacT/Alert (P < .0001). Both were equivalent in the recovery of yeast and when no antimicrobials were dosed. CONCLUSIONS: BACTEC media has faster time to detection and increased bacterial recovery over the BacT/Alert media in the following categories: overall growth, pathogens, septic events, gram-positive cocci, gram-negative rods, Staphylococcus aureus, and cultures where antimicrobials were dosed up to 48 hours before culture collection.

Background: Occupational therapy has taken a leading role in the screen- ing, assessment, and retraining of potentially unsafe older drivers. This investigation examined the attitudes, knowledge, and practices of occupational therapists (OTs) con- cerning drivers with dementia. Methods: A questionnaire that obtained perspectives about and experiences with drivers with dementia was mailed to licensed OTs from North Carolina and South Carolina. Results: The sample was comprised of 180 OTs. Therapists who had a strong perceived role regarding driver rehabilitation and inter- vention, believed that it was an important topic to address, and were knowledgeable about driving-related issues were more likely to address the issue with clients and their family. Conclusions: The growing concern about the safety of older drivers with demen- tia supports the importance of OTs addressing the driving needs of their clients. We recommend increasing the number of trained OT driving specialists as well as empha- sizing dementia-related continuing education training for OT generalists.

BACKGROUND: Staphylococcus aureus bacteremia (SAB) is a common, severe infectious disease with accepted standards of care. METHODS: A retrospective cohort study of all 233 SAB cases at the Minneapolis Veterans Affairs Medical Center (MVAMC) between October 2004 and February 2008 was performed to measure the impact of Infectious Disease (ID) consultation on conformance to standards and patient outcomes. Outcomes were classified as survived without relapse, relapsed, or died without relapse. ID involvement was classified as consultation, curbside, or no involvement. RESULTS: ID involvement occurred in 179/233 cases (77%). Management conformed to accepted standards in 162/197 cases (82%) evaluable for conformance. ID involvement was associated with increased conformance in univariable analysis and multivariable analysis adjusted for propensity for ID consultation (OR 5.9, 95% CI 2.5 - 13.8). Relapse occurred in 14/156 cases (9%) in which therapy conformed to standards compared with 8/35 cases (23%) in which therapy did not conform to standards (p=0.045). Relapse was more common in older patients (OR 1.05, CI 1.01-1.09) and in cases without ID involvement (OR 3.02, CI 1.003-9.1). Death was associated with greater Charlson Index scores (OR 1.89, CI 1.4-2.5). Of 111 cases with definitely or possibly infected devices, relapse occurred in 9/92 cases (9.8%) in which the device was wholly or partially removed compared with 6/19 cases (32%) in which the device was left in place (p=0.02). CONCLUSIONS: ID involvement in SAB cases was associated with increased adherence to accepted standards and fewer relapses. ID consultation should be performed for all SAB cases.

Patients treated with dialysis have low levels of physical functioning and activity. Whether this translates into frailty or not may depend on how the frailty phenotype is operationalized. This is a secondary analysis of data from the Renal Exercise Demonstration Project to evaluate two methods of operationalizing the Fried phenotype for frailty: Using measured walking speed and muscle weakness (FRAILmeas) and using substitution of the Physical Function Scale (PF) from the SF-36 questionnaire for walking speed and muscle weakness (FRAILsubst). Complete data for both measures were available for 188 hemodialysis patients. The frailty score (FRAILmeas) was the sum of criteria scores for measured gait speed, chair stand, body mass index, vitality, and physical activity. The frailty score (FRAILsubst) substituted the PF scale score (

Streptococcus pneumoniae is an uncommon cause of pyomyositis. It is unclear whether the clinical presentation and outcome of pneumococcal pyomyositis differ depending on the host's underlying immune status. We describe 2 patients with pneumococcal pyomyositis, review all published cases, and compare characteristics between apparently healthy hosts and at-risk hosts. A total of 35 cases of pneumococcal pyomyositis were identified, 11 in apparently healthy hosts and 24 in at-risk hosts. Two-thirds of the patients had an antecedent respiratory illness or meningitis. At-risk hosts tended to have a longer interval between the development of symptomatic muscle infection and the diagnosis of pyomyositis and a significantly higher risk of disseminated disease at presentation, as manifested by involvement of multiple noncontiguous muscles or presence of meningitis. Overall, other than 1 death, all patients recovered with antibiotics and surgical drainage, but as might be expected there was a significantly higher rate of complications among at-risk hosts.

Cognitive operations engage neural generators oscillating at different frequencies distributed in time and space. Accordingly, oscillatory activity detected by magnetoencephalography (MEG)/electroencephalography (EEG) should be analyzed along frequency, time, and spatial dimensions. MEG data were obtained from 19 healthy individuals while performing a modified Sternberg paradigm. The stimuli were letters, which constituted words or pronounceable nonwords. We applied tridimensional analysis of oscillations and also computed event-related fields (ERFs) in areas where significant changes in oscillatory activity were observed. Verbal working memory for visual verbal stimuli was associated with oscillatory interplay between the bilateral occipital lobes and the left frontoparietotemporal areas. Spatially stable occipital desynchrony was noted during information encoding, while a left hemisphere desynchronization, increasing in amplitude and spatial extent over time, was observed during information encoding and maintenance. No ERF changes were detected during information maintenance. Oscillatory activity associated with verbal working memory is consistent with the above hypothesis. These findings underscore the importance of multidimensional evaluation of oscillations. The findings also indicate that combining electrophysiological methods increase the chance of signal detection.

Escherichia coli sequence type ST131 (O25b:H4) has emerged over the past decade as a globally disseminated, multidrug-resistant pathogen. Unlike traditional antimicrobial-resistant E. coli , ST131 derives from virulence-associated phylogenetic group B2 and exhibits extraintestinal virulence factors. This, plus preliminary evidence of virulence in experimental animals, has suggested that ST131's epidemic emergence may be due to high virulence potential, compared with other E. coli types. To test this hypothesis, we compared a large number of matched ST131 and non-ST131 E. coli clinical isolates, both fluoroquinolone resistant and susceptible, plus isolates from classic extraintestinal pathogenic E. coli (ExPEC) sequence types (STs) and case report ST131 household transmission isolates, for virulence in a mouse subcutaneous sepsis model. Overall, in mice, the study isolates produced a wide range of lethality and clinical illness. However, neither ST131 status nor fluoroquinolone phenotype correlated with this diversity of illness severity, which occurred within each of the 6 study groups. In contrast, multiple known or suspected ExPEC virulence genes, including pap (P fimbriae), vat (vacuolating toxin), kpsM II (group 2 capsule), ibeA (invasion of brain endothelium), and clbB/N (colibactin synthesis), plus molecularly defined ExPEC status, were significantly associated with virulence. These findings point away from ST131 isolates as having higher virulence potential compared with other E. coli types in causing invasive extraintestinal infections and suggest instead that ST131's epidemiological success may reflect enhanced fitness for upstream steps in pathogenesis or in colonization and transmission. Additionally, the extensive within-ST virulence diversity suggests an opportunity to compare closely related strains to identify the responsible genetic determinants.

Patients with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) requiring renal replacement have impaired health-related quality of life (HRQoL), and there is general consensus that HRQoL improves with successful transplant and evidence of improvement with frequent hemodialysis. This study reports changes in HRQoL associated with changes in treatment modality to daily hemodialysis (DHD) and transplant among patients requiring renal replacement. This cohort study had assessments at baseline and 6-month following modality change. Subjects were nondiabetic individuals receiving conventional hemodialysis who (a) remained on conventional hemodialysis (n = 13), (b) changed to daily hemodialysis (DHD) (n = 10), or (c) received a living donor transplant (n = 20). Thirty-four healthy controls were assessed once for comparison. HRQoL was measured using the Kidney Disease Quality of Life Instrument. The Physical Functioning and Physical Composite Scale scores were primary outcomes. Transplantation resulted in significant improvements in six of eight generic scales and the physical composite scale (PCS). Those changing to DHD had significant improvements in Physical Function and PCS scales. Those remaining on dialysis remained lower than controls on all scales except for Vitality; the transplant group remained lower than controls only on the Vitality and General Health scales. Transplant resulted in significant improvements in four of the seven disease-specific scales (symptoms, effects, and burden of kidney disease, work). DHD resulted in improvements in the effects of kidney disease. Modality change to transplant results in significant improvement in HRQoL, achieving levels similar to controls. Change to daily hemodialysis improves only select HRQoL domains and remains low in disease-specific domains.

Background The utility of postoperative troponins as an independent predictor of long-term mortality after vascular surgery is unknown. Methods One hundred sixty-four consecutive patients underwent vascular surgery and postoperative mortality was determined at 2.5 years. Troponins were drawn within 48 hours postsurgery and the peak levels, defined by the upper reference limit (URL), were categorized as negative ( Results Mortality in the high positive (n = 44), low positive (n = 41), and negative (n = 79) troponin groups was 46%, 17%, and 6%, respectively ( P P P = .043), and use of statins (OR, 0.19; 95% CI, 0.07-0.49; P c index for peak troponin levels was 0.75 (95% CI, 0.68-0.82; P Conclusions Among patients undergoing vascular surgery, an elevated postoperative troponin level provides incremental value in predicting long-term outcomes, when compared with standard preoperative cardiac and surgical risks.

Myocardial uncoupling protein (UCP)-2 is increased with chronic peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPAR gamma) stimulation, but the effect on membrane potential and superoxide is unclear. Wild-type (WI) and UCP-2 knockout (KO) mice were given a 3-week diet of control (C) or the PPAR gamma agonist pioglitazone (PIO; 50 mu g/g-chow per day). In isolated mitochondria, UCP-2 content by Western blots, membrane potential (Delta Psi(m)) by tetraphenylphosphonium (TPP), and relative superoxide levels by dihydroethidium (DHE) were measured. Oxygen respiration was determined at base-line and after 10 min anoxia-reoxygenation. PIO induced a 2-fold increase in UCP-2 and nuclear-bound PGC1 alpha in WT mice with no UCP-2 expression in KO mice. Mitochondria! Delta Psi(m) from WT mice on C and PIO diets was -166 +/- 4 mV and -147 +/- 6 mV, respectively (P < 0.05). These values were lower than in UCP-2 KO mice on C and PIO (-180 +/- 4 mV and -180 +/- 4 mV, respectively; P < 0.05). Maximal complex III inhibitable superoxide from WT mice on C and PIO diets was 22.5 +/- 1.3 and 17.8 +/- 1.1 AU, respectively (P < 0.05), and were lower than UCP-2 KO on C and PIO (32.9 +/- 2.3 and 29.2 +/- 1.9 AU, respectively; P < 0.05). Postanoxia, the respiratory control index (RCI) in mitochondria from wr mice with and without PIO was 2.5 +/- 0.3 and 2.4 +/- 0.2, respectively, and exceeded that of UCP-2 KO mice on C and PIO (1.2 +/- 0.1 and 1.4 +/- 0.1, respectively; P < 0.05). In summary, chronic PPARy stimulation leads to depolarization of the inner membrane and reduced superoxide of isolated heart mitochondria, which was critically dependent on increased expression of UCP-2. Thus, UCP-2 expression affords resistance to brief anoxia-reoxygenation. (Translational Research 2012;159:383-390)

Butorphanol ([BT] an opioid receptor agonist/antagonist) is different from other opioid agonists in that a single dose of BT can elicit up to 12 g of chow intake in a satiated rat whereas most opioid agonists induce a mild feeding response (2-3 g). Here, we first examined whether the effectiveness of BT to elicit feeding was affected by dose, method of infusion and possible tachyphylaxis following administration. Secondly, we examined whether BT administration influenced hypothalamic NPY gene expression and peptide levels. A single dose administration of BT (4 mg/kg) significantly increased food intake at 2, 3 and 6 hours after administration. However following repeated injections of BT at 4 mg/kg, the cumulative long-term intake of BT-treated rats did not differ from that of controls, indicating that the animals compensate for the increased feeding following BT injection by decreased feeding at a later time. An ascending dose schedule of repeated BT injections resulted in additional feeding. NPY gene expression in the ARC was influenced by how much food had been consumed, but not by BT. The amount of food consumed and the level of NPY mRNA were inversely correlated. This is consistent with NPY’s role in normal feeding. BT treatment did not affect either NPY or leptin RIA levels. We conclude that the feeding produced by BT is sensitive to dose and dosing paradigm. Further, its mechanism of action does not appear to be mediated by NPY or leptin pathways.

Early, preemptive blockade of nerve growth factor (NGF)/tropomyosin receptor kinase A (TrkA) attenuates tumor-induced nerve sprouting and bone cancer pain. A critical unanswered question is whether late blockade of NGF/TrkA can attenuate cancer pain once NGF-induced nerve sprouting and neuroma formation has occurred. By means of a mouse model of prostate cancer-induced bone pain, anti-NGF was either administered preemptively at day 14 after tumor injection when nerve sprouting had yet to occur, or late at day 35, when extensive nerve sprouting had occurred. Animals were humanely killed at day 70 when, in vehicle-treated animals, significant nerve sprouting and neuroma formation was present in the tumor-bearing bone. Although preemptive and sustained administration (days 14–70) of anti-NGF more rapidly attenuated bone cancer nociceptive behaviors than late and sustained administration (days 35–70), by day 70 after tumor injection, both preemptive and late administration of anti-NGF significantly reduced nociceptive behaviors, sensory and sympathetic nerve sprouting, and neuroma formation. In this model, as in most cancers, the individual cancer cell colonies have a limited half-life because they are constantly proliferating, metastasizing, and undergoing necrosis as the parent cancer cell colony outgrows its blood supply. Similarly, the sensory and sympathetic nerve fibers that innervate the tumor undergo sprouting at the viable/leading edge of the parent tumor, degenerate as the parent cancer cell colony becomes necrotic, and resprout in the viable, newly formed daughter cell colonies. These results suggest that preemptive or late-stage blockade of NGF/TrkA can attenuate nerve sprouting and cancer pain.

Background Foley catheter (FC) use is a modifiable risk factor for hospital-acquired urinary tract infection, the most common type of nosocomial infection. It is unknown whether sustained, hospital-wide reductions in FC use are achievable by combining interventions with demonstrated short-term effectiveness in selected units. Methods A multifaceted quality improvement project to decrease unnecessary FC use and increase order documentation was instituted throughout the Minneapolis Veterans Affairs Medical Center in March 2005, after a >2-year baseline period. Bundled interventions included multiple types of education, system redesign, rewards, and feedback (phases I and II), plus, in phase III, involvement of a dedicated FC nurse. Results The daily prevalence of FC use dropped steeply during intervention phase I (5.5 months), from a 15.2% baseline mean to a 9.3% nadir, but rebounded quickly during the subsequent hiatus phase (1.2 months). It dropped again (mean, 13.6%) during intervention phase II (27.3 months) and even further (mean, 12.0%) during intervention phase III (22.8 months) (P ≤ .001, phase II or III vs baseline). Compared with baseline, during phase III (with the dedicated FC nurse) the mean daily percentages of nonordered and nonindicated FCs dropped from 17% to 5.1% and from 15% to 1.2%, respectively. During phases II and III combined, an estimated total of 6691 FC days were avoided. Conclusions Significant hospital-wide reductions in total and inappropriate FC use and improved FC order documentation were achieved through a multicomponent campaign. The greatest and most sustained improvements accompanied the involvement of a dedicated FC nurse.

Breast cancer metastasis to bone is frequently accompanied by pain. What remains unclear is why this pain tends to become more severe and difficult to control with disease progression. Here we test the hypothesis that with disease progression, sensory nerve fibers that innervate the breast cancer bearing bone undergo a pathological sprouting and reorganization, which in other nonmalignant pathologies has been shown to generate and maintain chronic pain. Injection of human breast cancer cells (MDA-MB-231-BO) into the femoral intramedullary space of female athymic nude mice induces sprouting of calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP + ) sensory nerve fibers. Nearly all CGRP + nerve fibers that undergo sprouting also coexpress tropomyosin receptor kinase A (TrkA + ) and growth-associated protein-43 (GAP43 + ). This ectopic sprouting occurs in periosteal sensory nerve fibers that are in close proximity to breast cancer cells, tumor-associated stromal cells, and remodeled cortical bone. Therapeutic treatment with an antibody that sequesters nerve growth factor (NGF), administered when the pain and bone remodeling were first observed, blocks this ectopic sprouting and attenuates cancer pain. The present data suggest that the breast cancer cells and tumor-associated stromal cells express and release NGF, which drives bone pain and the pathological reorganization of nearby CGRP + /TrkA + /GAP43 + sensory nerve fibers. Perspective Therapies that block breast cancer pain by reducing the tumor-induced pathological sprouting and reorganization of sensory nerve fibers may provide insight into the evolving mechanisms that drive breast cancer pain and lead to more effective therapies for attenuating this chronic pain state.

Background Renal artery duplex ultrasonography (RA-DUS) is commonly used for the evaluation and follow-up of renal artery atherosclerotic disease. In a complete study, renal artery flow is evaluated from the vessel origin to the intraparenchymal branches. The quality of RA-DUS is in part technologist-dependent, but many factors may affect the ability to complete a diagnostic examination. This study evaluated the clinical and technical factors that predict the ability to obtain a complete RA-DUS examination. Methods A prospective evaluation of all patients undergoing RA-DUS between July 2008 and February 2009 was performed. Factors such as patient age, gender, body mass index, technologists’ years of experience, patient care setting (inpatient vs. outpatient), bedside examination, smoking before the examination, fasting status, and recent abdominal surgery were all recorded. Multivariate logistic regression analysis was performed. A p value of ≤0.05 was considered significant. Results During the study period, 250 patients underwent RA-DUS (mean age: 59.9 ± 17.8 years, 57% [143] female). A total of 87 (35%) examinations were incomplete. This included nondiagnostic examinations which did not exhibit any segment of the renal artery. Factors that were associated with an incomplete examination included technologists’ years of experience (OR = 0.92, p = 0.042), bedside examination (OR = 4.17, p = 0.016), and recent abdominal surgery (OR = 3.45, p = 0.047). Body mass index, fasting status, and smoking before the examination did not affect the ability to obtain a complete study. Conclusions One-third of the RA-DUS studies were classified as incomplete by the strict criteria used in this prospective study. An experienced ultrasound technologist is more likely to obtain a complete RA-DUS examination. Recent abdominal surgery and bedside examinations were predictive of a limited examination as well. Vascular laboratories should consider these factors when scheduling examinations so as to obtain complete RA-DUS studies, as well as improve the cost-effectiveness of resource utilization.