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Atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) and consequent acute coronary syndromes (ACS) are substantial contributors to morbidity and mortality across Europe. Fortunately, as much as two thirds of this disease's burden is modifiable, in particular by lipid-lowering therapy (LLT). Current guidelines are based on the sound premise that, with respect to low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C), "lower is better for longer", and recent data have strongly emphasised the need for also "the earlier the better". In addition to statins, which have been available for several decades, ezetimibe, bempedoic acid (also as fixed dose combinations), and modulators of proprotein convertase subtilisin/kexin type 9 (PCSK9 inhibitors and inclisiran) are additionally very effective approaches to LLT, especially for those at very high and extremely high cardiovascular risk. In real life, however, clinical practice goals are still not met in a substantial proportion of patients (even in 70%). However, with the options we have available, we should render lipid disorders a rare disease. In April 2021, the International Lipid Expert Panel (ILEP) published its first position paper on the optimal use of LLT in post-ACS patients, which complemented the existing guidelines on the management of lipids in patients following ACS, which defined a group of "extremely high-risk" individuals and outlined scenarios where upfront combination therapy should be considered to improve access and adherence to LLT and, consequently, the therapy's effectiveness. These updated recommendations build on the previous work, considering developments in the evidential underpinning of combination LLT, ongoing education on the role of lipid disorder therapy, and changes in the availability of lipid-lowering drugs. Our aim is to provide a guide to address this unmet clinical need, to provide clear practical advice, whilst acknowledging the need for patient-centred care, and accounting for often large differences in the availability of LLTs between countries., Competing Interests: Declarations. Funding: No external funding was used in the preparation of this article. Conflict of interest: Dr. Banach has received research grant(s)/support from Amgen, Daiichi-Sankyo, Mylan/Viatris, and Sanofi, and has received honoraria and/or served as a consultant for Adamed, Amgen, Daiichi-Sankyo, Esperion, Kogen, KRKA, Lilly, MSD, Mylan/Viatris, NewAmsterdam Pharma, Novartis, Novo Nordisk, Polfarmex, Polpharma, Sanofi-Regeneron, Servier, Teva, and Zentiva. Dr. Reiner has received honoraria from Sanofi and Novartis. Dr. Cicero has received personal fees from Mylan-Viatris, Sharper, and Servier. Dr. Dyrbuś has received fee for scientific activities from Novartis, Sanofi-Aventis, and Amgen. Dr. Fedacko has received a consultancy fee from Sanofi, Amgen and Novo Nordisk, and a research grant from Pfizer. Dr. Fras has received grants and fees for scientific activities from Amgen, Krka, Novartis, Swix BioPharma, and Viatris. Dr. Gaita has received honoraria from Amgen, AstraZeneca, Bayer, Berlin Chemie, Biofarm, Boehringer Ingelheim, Galenica, GSK, Gedeon Richter, Krka, MSD, Novartis, Novo Nordisk, Pfizer, Sanofi, Servier, Terapia, Vifor Pharma, and Zentiva. Dr. Gierlotka reports honoraria from Sanofi, Novartis, Bayer, Amgen, Novo Nordisk, AstraZeneca, Servier. Dr. Gouni-Berthold has served as consultant and received honoraria from Akcea, Amgen, Daiichi-Sankyo, Novartis, Sanofi-Regeneron, Ultragenyx, and Amarin. Dr. Jankowski has received a research grant from Sanofi and has served as a consultant for Novartis, Servier, and Zentiva. Dr. Járai has served as a consultant for and received honoraria from Bayer, Berlin-Chemie, Boehringer Ingelheim, Egis, MSD, Novartis (Sandoz), Novo Nordisk, Pfizer, Richter Gedeon, Sanofi, Servier, and Teva. Dr. Latkovskis has given talks, attended conferences, received consultancy fees, and/or participated in trials sponsored by Abbott Laboratories, Amgen, AstraZeneca, Berlin-Chemie/Menarini, Bayer, Boehringer Ingelheim, GlaxoSmithKline, Grindex, KRKA, MSD, Mylan, Novartis, Novo Nordisk, Pfizer, Sanofi, Servier Laboratories, Siemens Laboratories, and Zentiva. Dr. Magda has received consultation fees from Novartis, Sanofi, and Servier. Dr. Margetic has received a fee for scientific activities from Novartis and Sanofi. Dr. Ostadal has received honoraria from Getinge, Abiomed, Edwards, Fresenius/Xenios, AstraZeneca, Bayer, Boehringer Ingelheim, Amgen, Sanofi, Servier, Novartis, Pfizer, AOP, and GSK. Dr Paragh has received lectures fees from Hungarian branches of Novartis, Richter Gedeon, and Sandoz. Dr. Paneni has received honoraria from Novo Nordisk. Dr. Pećin has received grants and fees for scientific activities from Amgen, Bayer, Novartis, and Sanofi. Dr. Pella has received grant support and honoraria from Sanofi, Amgen, MSD, Servier, Novartis, and Pfizer. Dr. Postadzhiyan reports fees for educational activities from Amgen, AstraZeneca, KRKA, Novartis, Servier, Teva, and Zentiva. Dr. Stoian has given lectures, received honoraria and research support, and participated in conferences, advisory boards, and clinical trials sponsored by pharmaceutical companies, from AstraZeneca, Amgen, Boehringer Ingelheim, Coca-Cola, Eli Lilly, Merck, Medtronic, MSD, Medochemie, Novo Nordisk, Novartis, Roche Diagnostics, Servier, Sandoz, and Sanofi. Dr. Trbusic has received a fee for scientific activities from Novartis and Sanofi. Dr. Udroiu has received a fee for scientific activities from AstraZeneca and Pfizer. Dr. Viigimaa reports fees for educational activities from Amgen, AstraZeneca, Novartis, Novo Nordisk, Menarini, Servier, and Swixx BioPharma. Dr. Vinereanu has received research grants and expert fees from Amgen, Sanofi, Novartis, and Servier. Dr. Vlachopoulos has received grants and fees for scientific activities from Amgen, Sanofi, and MSD. Dr. Vrablik has received personal fees from Abbott, Amgen, AstraZeneca, BMS, Genzyme, KRKA, MSD Idea, Novartis, Pfizer, and Sanofi-Regeneron. Dr. Vulic has received a fee for scientific activities from Sanofi. Dr. Penson owns four shares in AstraZeneca PLC and has received honoraria from Amgen and Sanofi and travel/accommodation reimbursement for events sponsored by AKCEA, Amgen, AMRYT, Link Medical, Mylan, and Napp. All other authors declare that they have no potential conflicts of interest that might be relevant to the contents of this article. Authors’ contributions: Dr. Banach: Conceptualisation; data curation; methodology; project administration; supervision; validation; visualisation; writing, reviewing, and editing; revisions; preparing the final version of the paper. Dr. Penson: Data curation; investigation; methodology; validation; visualisation; first draft preparation; reviewing and editing. Dr Surma: data curation, visualisation, draft figures preparations; reviewing and editing. Drs. Reiner, Bajraktari, Bielecka-Dabrowa, Bunc, Bytyçi, Ceska, Cicero, Dudek, Dyrbuś, Fedacko, Fras, Gaita, Gavish, Gierlotka, Gil, Gouni-Berthold, Jankowski, Járai, Jóźwiak, Katsiki, Latkovskis, Magda, Margetic, Margoczy, Mitchenko, Durak-Nalbantic, Ostadal, Paragh, Petrulioniene, Paneni, Pećin, Pella, Postadzhiyan, Stoian, Trbusic, Udroiu, Viigimaa, Vinereanu, Vlachopoulos, Vrablik, and Vulic: Investigation, methodology; validation; writing, reviewing, and editing; final revisions and approval. Data availability statement: Data sharing is not applicable to this article as no datasets were generated for this article. Ethics approval: Not applicable. Code availability: Not applicable. Consent to participate: Not applicable. Consent for publication: Not applicable., (© 2024. The Author(s).)

Measuring blood pressure (BP) and investigating arterial hemodynamics are essential in understanding cardiovascular disease and assessing cardiovascular risk. Several methods are used to measure BP in the doctor's office, at home, or over 24 h under ambulatory conditions. Similarly, several noninvasive methods have been introduced for assessing arterial structure and function; these methods differ for the large arteries, the small ones, and the capillaries. Consequently, when studying arterial hemodynamics, the clinician is faced with a multitude of assessment methods whose technical details, advantages, and limitations are sometimes unclear. Moreover, the conditions and procedures for their optimal implementation, and/or the reference normality values for the parameters they yield are not always taken into sufficient consideration. Therefore, a practice guideline summarizing the main methods and their use in clinical practice is needed. This expert group position paper was developed by an international group of scientists after a two-day meeting during which each of the most used methods and techniques for blood pressure measurement and arterial function and structure evaluation were presented and discussed, focusing on their advantages, limitations, indications, normal values, and their pragmatic clinical application., (Copyright © 2024 The Author(s). Published by Wolters Kluwer Health, Inc.)

Inappropriate sinus tachycardia (IST) is one of the manifestations of the post-COVID-19 syndrome (PCS), which pathogenesis remains largely unknown. This study aimed to identify potential risk factors for IST in individuals with PCS. The 1349 patients with PCS were included into the study. Clinical examination, 24H Holter ECG, 24H ambulatory blood pressure monitoring and biochemical tests were performed 12-16 weeks after the COVID-19 in all participants. IST was found in 69 (3.5%) individuals. In the clinical assessment IST patients were characterized by a higher age (p < 0.001) and lower prevalence of the diagnosed hypertension (p = 0.012), compared to remaining patients. Biochemical testing showed higher serum triglycerides (1.66 vs. 1.31 pmol/L, p = 0.007) and higher prevalence of a low high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol (24.6% vs. 15.2%, p = 0.035) in the IST group. Subsequently, the triglicerydes (TG)/HDL ratio, an indicator of insulin resistance, was significantly higher in the IST individuals (3.2 vs. 2.4, p = 0.005). 24H monitoring revealed a significantly higher minimum diastolic, maximum systolic and mean arterial blood pressure values in the IST group (p < 0.001 for all), suggesting a high prevalence of undiagnosed hypertension. A multivariate analysis confirmed the predictive value TG/HDL ratio >3 (OR 2.67, p < 0.001) as predictors of IST development. A receiver operating characteristic curve analysis of the relationship between the TG/HDL ratio and the IST risk showed that the predictive cut-off point for this parameter was 2.46 (area under the ROC curve = 0.600, p = 0.004). Based on these findings, one can conclude that insulin resistance seems to be a risk factor of IST, a common component of PCS., (© 2024 The Authors. Journal of Medical Virology published by Wiley Periodicals LLC.)

Lipoprotein(a) [Lp(a)] is made up of a low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particle and a specific apolipoprotein(a). The blood concentration of Lp(a) is approximately 90% genetically determined, and the main genetic factor determining Lp(a) levels is the size of the apo(a) isoform, which is determined by the number of KIV2 domain repeats. The size of the apo(a) isoform is inversely proportional to the blood concentration of Lp(a). Lp(a) is a strong and independent cardiovascular risk factor. Elevated Lp(a) levels ≥ 50 mg/dl (≥ 125 nmol/l) are estimated to occur in more than 1.5 billion people worldwide. However, determination of Lp(a) levels is performed far too rarely, including Poland, where, in fact, it is only since the 2021 guidelines of the Polish Lipid Association (PoLA) and five other scientific societies that Lp(a) measurements have begun to be performed. Determination of Lp(a) concentrations is not easy due to, among other things, the different sizes of the apo(a) isoforms; however, the currently available certified tests make it possible to distinguish between people with low and high cardiovascular risk with a high degree of precision. In 2022, the first guidelines for the management of patients with elevated lipoprotein(a) levels were published by the European Atherosclerosis Society (EAS) and the American Heart Association (AHA). The first Polish guidelines are the result of the work of experts from the two scientific societies and their aim is to provide clear, practical recommendations for the determination and management of elevated Lp(a) levels., Competing Interests: Przemysław Mitkowski – remuneration for lectures/advisory panels from Novartis, Sanofi, Amgen; Agata Bielecka-Dąbrowa – remuneration for lectures from Novartis; Beata Bobrowska – collaborated as consultant and received remuneration for lectures from Amgen, Exceed Orphan, Novartis, Polpharma, Sanofi; Pawel Burchardt – remuneration for lectures from Amgen, Novartis, Sanofi, Sandoz, Teva; Piotr Dobrowolski – remuneration for lectures/advisory panels from: Amgen, Sanofi, Novartis; Piotr Jankowski – remuneration for lectures from: Amgen, Novartis, Sanofi; Jacek Kubica – remuneration for lectures from: Amgen, Novartis, Sanofi; Agnieszka Mickiewicz – remuneration for lectures from Novartis, Amgen, Sanofi, Fresenius Medical Care; Aleksander Prejbisz – participation in a clinical trial funded by Amgen; Renata Rajtar-Salwa – consultant/remuneration for lectures from Amgen, Sanofi, Novartis, Exceed Orphan, Polfarma; Adam Witkowski – advisory panels and remuneration for lectures form Novartis and Sanofi; Robert Gil – remuneration from lectures from Novartis, Amgen, Sanofi; Maciej Banach – remuneration for lectures from Adamed, Amgen, Daiichi Sankyo, Exceed Orphan, KRKA, Polpharma, Mylan/Viatris, Novartis, Novo-Nordisk, Pfizer, Sanofi, Teva, Zentiva; participation in advisory panels for Adamed, Amgen, Daiichi Sankyo, Esperion, NewAmsterdam, Novartis, Novo-Nordisk, Sanofi; grants from: Amgen, Daiichi Sankyo, Mylan/Viatris, Sanofi; other authors reported no conflict of interest., (Copyright: © 2024 Termedia & Banach.)

Introduction: Previous studies have indicated that COVID-19 symptoms may persist for up to 12 months after recovery; however, data on this phenomenon are still limited., Objectives: The aim of this study was to assess the prevalence, the most common symptoms, and the risk factors for development of post-COVID syndrome in hospitalized and nonhospitalized patients during a 12-month follow-up after recovery from COVID-19., Patients and Methods: This longitudinal study was based on medical data collected at follow-up visits at 3 and 12 months post-COVID-19. Sociodemographic data, chronic conditions, and the most common clinical symptoms were assessed. A total of 643 patients were enrolled in the final analysis., Results: A majority of the study group were women (63.1%), and the median age of the entire group was 52 years (interquartile range [IQR] 43-63). After 12 months, a median of 65.7% (IQR, 62.1%-69.6%) of the patients declared the presence of at least 1 clinical symptom of post-COVID syndrome. The most common complaints were asthenia (median, 45.7% [IQR, 41.9%-49.6%]) and neurocognitive symptoms (median, 40% [IQR, 36%-40.1%]). In a multivariable analysis, female sex (odds ratio [OR] 1.49; P = 0.01) and severe COVID-19 course (OR, 3.05; P <0.001) were associated with persistence of clinical symptoms for up to 12 months after recovery., Conclusions: After 12 months, persistent symptoms were declared by 65.7% of the patients. The most common symptoms 3 and 12 months after the infection were worse tolerance to exercise, fatigue, palpitations, and memory or concentration problems. Women are at a higher risk of experiencing persistent symptoms, and COVID-19 severity was a predictor of persistent post-COVID-19 symptoms.

Clinical evidence indicates that COVID-19 is a multiorgan disease that significantly impacts the cardiovascular system. However, little is known about the predictors of myocardial dysfunction after SARS-CoV-2 infection. Therefore, this research aimed to evaluate the clinical and electrocardiographic correlates of myocardial dysfunction after SARS-CoV-2 infection in nonhospitalised patients without previously diagnosed cardiovascular disease. This observational study included 448 patients selected from the database of 4142 patients in the Polish Long-Covid Cardiovascular study. All patients underwent a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG); 24-h Holter ECG monitoring, 24/7 ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, echocardiography, and cardiac magnetic resonance imaging. According to the results of diagnostic tests, patients were divided into two groups depending on the occurrence of myocardial dysfunction after COVID-19. Group 1-without myocardial dysfunction after COVID-19-consisted of 419 patients, with a mean age of 48.82 (SD ± 11.91), and Group 2 (29 patients)-with myocardial dysfunction after COVID-19, with a mean age of 51.45 (SD ± 12.92). When comparing the analysed groups, there were significantly more men in Group 2 (p = 0.006). QRS (corresponds to the time of ventricular contraction in an electrocardiographic examination) fragmentation (p = 0.031), arrhythmias (atrial fibrillation, supraventricular extrasystole, ventricular extrasystole) (p = 0.008), and male gender (p = 0.007) were independently associated with myocardial dysfunction after COVID-19. The study showed that myocardial damage after COVID-19 affects men more often and is independent of typical clinical factors and the severity of the disease course. The QRS fragmentation and arrhythmias observed in the ECG indicate the possibility of myocardial dysfunction in patients after COVID-19, which may be a valuable marker for physicians., (© 2023 The Authors. Journal of Medical Virology published by Wiley Periodicals LLC.)

BACKGROUND : Endoscopic surveillance of Barrett's esophagus (BE) with Seattle protocol biopsies is time-consuming and inadequately performed in routine practice. There is no recommended procedural time for BE surveillance. We investigated the duration of surveillance procedures with adequate tissue sampling and effect on dysplasia detection rate (DDR). METHODS : We performed post hoc analysis from the standard arm of a crossover randomized controlled trial recruiting patients with BE (≥C2 and/or ≥M3) and no clearly visible dysplastic lesions. After inspection with white-light imaging, targeted biopsies of subtle lesions and Seattle protocol biopsies were performed. Procedure duration and biopsy number were stratified by BE length. The effect of endoscopy-related variables on DDR was assessed by multivariable logistic regression. RESULTS : Of 142 patients recruited, 15 (10.6 %) had high grade dysplasia/intramucosal cancer and 15 (10.6 %) had low grade dysplasia. The median procedural time was 16.5 minutes (interquartile range 14.0-19.0). Endoscopy duration increased by 0.9 minutes for each additional 1 cm of BE length. Seattle protocol biopsies had higher sensitivity for dysplasia than targeted biopsies (86.7 % vs. 60.0 %; P  = 0.045). Longer procedural time was associated with increased likelihood of dysplasia detection on quadrantic biopsies (odds ratio [OR] 1.10, 95 %CI 1.00-1.20, P  = 0.04), and for patients with BE > 6 cm also on targeted biopsies (OR 1.21, 95 %CI 1.04-1.40; P  = 0.01). CONCLUSIONS : In BE patients with no clearly visible dysplastic lesions, longer procedural time was associated with increased likelihood of dysplasia detection. Adequate time slots are required to perform good-quality surveillance and maximize dysplasia detection., Competing Interests: K. Ragunath is a consultant for Olympus. M. Vithayathil, I. Modolell, J. Ortiz-Fernandez-Sordo, A. Pappas, W. Januszewicz, M. O’Donovan, M. Bianchi, J. White, P. Kaye, and M. di Pietro declare that they have no conflict of interest., (The Author(s). This is an open access article published by Thieme under the terms of the Creative Commons Attribution License, permitting unrestricted use, distribution, and reproduction so long as the original work is properly cited. (https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by/4.0/).)

Background: Recognition of early signet-ring cell carcinoma (SRCC) in patients with hereditary diffuse gastric cancer (HDGC) undergoing endoscopic surveillance is challenging. We hypothesized that probe-based confocal laser endomicroscopy (pCLE) might help diagnose early cancerous lesions in the context of HDGC. The aim of this study was to identify pCLE diagnostic criteria for early SRCC., Methods: Patients with HDGC syndrome were prospectively recruited and pCLE assessment was performed on areas suspicious for early SRCC and control regions during an endoscopic surveillance procedure. Targeted biopsies were taken for gold standard histologic assessment. In Phase I two investigators assessed video sequences off-line to identify pCLE features related to SRCC. In Phase II pCLE diagnostic criteria were evaluated in an independent video set by the investigators blinded to the histologic diagnosis. Sensitivity, specificity, accuracy, and interobserver agreement were calculated., Results: Forty-two video sequences from 16 HDGC patients were included in Phase I. Four pCLE patterns associated to SRCC histologic features were identified: (A) glands with attenuated margins, (B) glands with spiculated or irregular shape, (C) heterogenous granular stroma with sparse glands, (D) enlarged vessels with tortuous shape. In Phase II, 38 video sequences from 15 patients were assessed. Criteria A and B and C had the highest diagnostic accuracy, with a κ for interobserver agreement ranging from 0.153 to 0.565. A panel comprising these 3 criteria with a cut-off of at least one positive criterion had a sensitivity of 80.9% (95%CI:58.1-94.5%) and a specificity of 70.6% (95%CI:44.0-89.7%) for a diagnosis of SRCC., Conclusions: We have generated and validated off-line pCLE criteria for early SRCC. Future real-time validation of these criteria is required., (© 2023. The Author(s).)

Purpose: We evaluated, in a real-life setting, the effect of Mydrane® (ready-to-use combination of tropicamide, phenylephrine hydrochloride and lidocaine, injected into the anterior chamber at the beginning of cataract surgery to induce mydriasis and intraocular anaesthesia) on the pupil diameter during cataract surgery in patients with a preoperative pupil diameter <6 mm after the use of topical mydriatics., Methods: We collected and analysed the data of 59 consecutive patients whose pupils dilated to a diameter <6 mm after the administration of mydriatic eye drops during the preoperative visit and who received Mydrane® during cataract surgery., Results: In the group of 59 patients with a preoperative pupil diameter <6 mm after topical mydriatics, cataract surgery was performed in 36 patients (61.0%) using only Mydrane® to obtain mydriasis, with no additional drug or medical device. The mean pupil diameters in this group (36 of 59) during the preoperative assessment after topical mydriatics and just before capsulorhexis when Mydrane® was injected during surgery were 5.1 ± 0.74 and 6.15 ± 1.14 mm. Additional drugs were used in 23 patients (39%). In this group, the mean pupil diameters after topical mydriatics and just before capsulorhexis using Mydrane® were 4.58 ± 1.06 and 5.6 ± 1.26 mm, respectively., Conclusion: In a real-life setting, the mean pupil diameter achieved during cataract surgery after the intracameral injection of Mydrane® in patients with a preoperative pupil diameter <6 mm was over 1 mm larger than the mean pupil diameter after topical mydriatics, despite the trauma caused by the operation., (© 2022 The Authors. Acta Ophthalmologica published by John Wiley & Sons Ltd on behalf of Acta Ophthalmologica Scandinavica Foundation.)

Helicobacter pylori remains a major health problem worldwide, causing considerable morbidity and mortality due to peptic ulcer disease and gastric cancer. These guidelines constitute an update of the previous "Recommendations on the diagnosis and management of Helicobacter pylori infection" issued in 2014. They have been developed by a Task Force organized by the Governing Board of the Polish Society of Gastroenterology. They discuss, with particular emphasis on new scientific data covering papers published since 2014: the epidemiology, clinical presentation, diagnostic principles and criteria for the diagnosis, and recommendations for the treatment of H. pylori infection. The guidelines in particular determine which patients need to be tested and treated for infection. The Task Force also discussed recommended treatment algorithms. Accordingly, a combination of available evidence and consensus-based expert opinion were used to develop these best practice advice statements. It is worth noting that guidelines are not mandatory to implement but they offer advice for pragmatic, relevant and achievable diagnostic and treatment pathways based on established key treatment principles and using local knowledge and available resources to guide regional practice., Competing Interests: Professor PhD, MD Anita Gąsiorowska: a speaker for Urgo Polfa Lodz. Professor PhD, MD Jarosław Daniluk: a speaker for DiaSorin Poland. The other authors declare no conflict of interest., (Copyright © 2023 Termedia.)

As gastric cancer is associated with poor prognosis, the preferred management of locally advanced gastric cancer (GC) and gastroesophageal junction (GEJ) cancer in European patients is perioperative chemotherapy using the FLOT regimen. Previously published data demonstrate that such treatment is associated with improved disease-free survival (DFS) as well as overall survival (OS) compared to ECF/ECX regimen. In order to collect biomaterial for the identification of serum biomarkers of an early response to neoadjuvant chemotherapy, we performed a prospective study and here, we report the safety and clinical efficacy of this prospective cohort. It was an academic, nonrandomized, prospective study, conducted at Maria Sklodowska-Curie National Research Institute of Oncology in Warsaw, Poland. Between January 2018 and November 2019, we analyzed a total of 61 patients aged 30-77 (median 63 years, 52.5% males and 47.5% females) with histologically confirmed GC or GEJ cancer. The patients were qualified by a multidisciplinary team for perioperative treatment (FLOT regimen). All cases of reported adverse events were recorded and analyzed. All patients received G-CSF prophylactically. After gastrectomy, an assessment of pathological regression was performed according to the Becker classification. A total of 93.4% (57) patients completed four cycles of preoperative chemotherapy and 78.7% (48) received postoperative chemotherapy. All of them experienced grade 1/2 toxicities. The common AE G1/G2 in preoperative versus postoperative chemotherapy were: fatigue (75% vs. 60%), anemia (64% vs. 62%), nausea (60% vs. 60%), peripheral neuropathy (60% vs. 60%), and oral mucositis (59% vs. 50%), respectively. Only 24.6% (15) had G3/4 adverse events during preoperative chemotherapy and only 20.8% (10) during postoperative chemotherapy. The estimated DFS at 3 years was 53% (95% CI 40.5-66.1%) and the estimated OS at 3 years was 60.2% (95% CI 45.1-72.3%). FLOT regimen significantly improved GC and GEJ cancer patients' prognosis with acceptable side-effect profiles.

Objective: To determine whether a single measurement of ACTH instead of less available in daily practice 11-deoxycortisol assay is sufficient to rule out or confirm secondary adrenal insufficiency (SAI) in the short Metyrapone test., Design: A retrospective analysis of diagnostic tests (Metyrapone and Synacthen tests) performed at our Center between 2016 and 2018 in patients with suspicion of secondary adrenal insufficiency., Material and Methods: In 103 patients short metyrapone test was performed with assessment of 11-deoxycortisol and ACTH concentration after Metyrapone administered at midnight. In 89 of them short Synacthen (SST) test was also done (1 or/and 250 mcg 1-24ACTH). ROC curves have been performed to evaluate the diagnostic performance of ACTH level in metyrapone test as the predictor of secondary adrenal insufficiency (SAI) analysing sensitivity and specificity for various possible thresholds proposed in literature., Results: 40 (39%) of examined subjects were diagnosed as SAI, basing on post-Metyrapone 11-deoxycortisol concentration below 70 μg/l. In this group ACTH concentration was 128.1 ng/l (95% CI 96.8-159.4) versus 289.9 ng/l (95% CI 249.1-330.9) in patients with proper adrenal response. There was only a moderate positive correlation between ACTH and 11-deoxycortisol concentrations (r=0.5; p<0.05). The best cut off value of ACTH in relation to 11-deoxycortisol serum concentrations was 147 ng/l - with sensitivity of 73.2% and specificity 83.9%. However, plasma ACTH was>200ng/ml (the highest threshold proposed in literature) in 8 cases (20%) with positive diagnosis of SAI made on the basis of low 11-deoxycortisole and confirmed in short Synacthen test., Conclusion: Our results indicate that for a valuable evaluation of the results of the metyrapone test, the more readily available plasma ACTH assay cannot replace the measurement of 11-deoxycortisol concentrations., Competing Interests: The authors declare that the research was conducted in the absence of any commercial or financial relationships that could be construed as a potential conflict of interest., (Copyright © 2022 Papierska, Rabijewski, Migda, Leszczyńska, Nowak, Łebek-Szatańska, Glinicki and Zgliczyński.)

Background & Aims: Dysplasia in Barrett's esophagus often is invisible on high-resolution white-light endoscopy (HRWLE). We compared the diagnostic accuracy for inconspicuous dysplasia of the combination of autofluorescence imaging (AFI)-guided probe-based confocal laser endomicroscopy (pCLE) and molecular biomarkers vs HRWLE with Seattle protocol biopsies., Methods: Barrett's esophagus patients with no dysplastic lesions were block-randomized to standard endoscopy (HRWLE with the Seattle protocol) or AFI-guided pCLE with targeted biopsies for molecular biomarkers (p53 and cyclin A by immunohistochemistry; aneuploidy by image cytometry), with crossover to the other arm after 6 to 12 weeks. The primary end point was the histologic diagnosis from all study biopsies (trial histology). A sensitivity analysis was performed for overall histology, which included diagnoses within 12 months from the first study endoscopy. Endoscopists were blinded to the referral endoscopy and histology results. The primary outcome was diagnostic accuracy for dysplasia by real-time pCLE vs HRWLE biopsies., Results: Of 154 patients recruited, 134 completed both arms. In the primary outcome analysis (trial histology analysis), AFI-guided pCLE had similar sensitivity for dysplasia compared with standard endoscopy (74.3%; 95% CI, 56.7-87.5 vs 80.0%; 95% CI, 63.1-91.6; P = .48). Multivariate logistic regression showed pCLE optical dysplasia, aberrant p53, and aneuploidy had the strongest correlation with dysplasia (secondary outcome). This 3-biomarker panel had higher sensitivity for any grade of dysplasia than the Seattle protocol (81.5% vs 51.9%; P &lt; .001) in the overall histology analysis, but not in the trial histology analysis (91.4% vs 80.0%; P = .16), with an area under the receiver operating curve of 0.83., Conclusions: Seattle protocol biopsies miss dysplasia in approximately half of patients with inconspicuous neoplasia. AFI-guided pCLE has similar accuracy to the current gold standard. The addition of molecular biomarkers could improve diagnostic accuracy., (Copyright © 2022 The Authors. Published by Elsevier Inc. All rights reserved.)

Introduction: Optical rhinometry is a newly standardized technique for assessing nasal obstruction in nasal allergen provocation testing. It is one of the few techniques that accurately determine the beginning of an allergic reaction as it measures optical density, which is consistent with the degree of response., Aim: To evaluate the usefulness of optical rhinometry in nasal allergen provocation testing., Material and Methods: The study population was a group of 45 subjects (25 diagnosed with an allergy to common environmental allergens and 20 controls). Nasal allergen provocation testing was conducted with the use of Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus and Dermatophagoides farina (5,000 SBU/ml)., Results: The onset of the nasal mucosa allergen response in the form of nasal obstruction was observed at 10.40 min. The subsequent reaction developed rapidly, with only 53 s from the initial stage of nasal obstruction to complete obstruction (optical density 0.4552)., Conclusions: Due to its informative potential, optical rhinometry is a valuable tool in assessing the nasal mucosal response to topical allergen application., Competing Interests: The authors declare no conflict of interest., (Copyright: © 2022 Termedia Sp. z o. o.)

Purpose: The pathophysiology of chronic fatigue associated with post-COVID syndrome is not well recognized. It is assumed that this condition is partly due to vascular dysfunction developed during an acute phase of infection. There is great demand for a diagnostic tool that is able to clinically assess post-COVID syndrome and monitor the rehabilitation process., Patients and Methods: The Flow Mediated Skin Fluorescence (FMSF) technique appears uniquely suitable for the analysis of basal microcirculatory oscillations and reactive hyperemia induced by transient ischemia. The FMSF was used to measure vascular circulation in 45 patients with post-COVID syndrome. The results were compared with those for a group of 26 amateur runners before and after high-intensity exercise as well as for a control group of 32 healthy age-matched individuals., Results: Based on the observed changes in the NOI (Normoxia Oscillatory Index) and RHR (Reactive Hyperemia Response) parameters measured with the FMSF technique, it was found that chronic fatigue associated with post-COVID syndrome is comparable with transient fatigue caused by high-intensity exercise in terms of vascular effects, which are associated with vascular stress in the macrocirculation and microcirculation. Acute and chronic fatigue symptomatology shared similarly altered changes in the NOI and RHR parameters and both can be linked to calcium homeostasis modification., Conclusion: The NOI and RHR parameters measured with the FMSF technique can be used for non-invasive clinical assessment of post-COVID syndrome as well as for monitoring the rehabilitation process., Competing Interests: JK is employed by Angionica Ltd. JG and AM are inventors of the patents protecting the use of FMSF technology EP2713860B1 issued to Angionica Ltd. The remaining authors declare that the research was conducted in the absence of any commercial or financial relationships that could be constructed as a potential conflict of interest., (© 2022 Chudzik et al.)

Background: A high rate of neoplasia, both high grade dysplasia (HGD) and esophageal adenocarcinoma (EAC) has been reported in Barrett's esophagus at index endoscopy, but precise rates of post-endoscopy Barrett's neoplasia (PEBN) are unknown., Methods: A systematic review and meta-analysis was performed examining electronic databases (inception to October 2021) for studies reporting PEBN. Consistent with the definitions of post-colonoscopy colorectal cancer proposed by the World Endoscopy Organization, we defined neoplasia (HGD/EAC) detected at index endoscopy and/or within 6 months of a negative index endoscopy as "prevalent" neoplasia, that detected after 6 months of a negative index endoscopy and prior to next surveillance interval (i. e. 3 years) as PEBN or "interval" neoplasia, and that detected after 36 months from a negative index endoscopy as "incident" neoplasia. The pooled incidence rates and proportions relative to total neoplasia were analyzed., Results: 11 studies (n = 59 795; 61 % men; mean [SD] age 62.3 [3.3] years) met the inclusion criteria. The pooled incidence rates were: prevalent neoplasia 4.5 % (95 %CI 2.2 %-8.9 %) at baseline and an additional 0.3 % (0.1 %-0.7 %) within the first 6 months, PEBN 0.52 % (0.46 %-0.58 %), and incident neoplasia 1.4 % (0.9 %-2.1 %). At 3 years from the index endoscopy, PEBN accounted for 3 % of total Barrett's neoplasia, while prevalent neoplasia accounted for 97 %., Conclusion: Neoplasia detected at or within 6 months of index endoscopy accounts for most cases of Barrett's neoplasia (> 90 %). PEBN accounts for ~3 % of cases and can be used for validation in future. This highlights the importance of a high quality index endoscopy in Barrett's esophagus and the need to establish quality benchmarks to measure endoscopists' performance., Competing Interests: The authors declare that they have no conflict of interest., (Thieme. All rights reserved.)

Objective: To investigate the predictive value of the Diverticular Inflammation and Complication Assessment (DICA) classification and to develop and validate a combined endoscopic-clinical score predicting clinical outcomes of diverticulosis, named Combined Overview on Diverticular Assessment (CODA)., Design: A multicentre, prospective, international cohort study., Setting: 43 gastroenterology and endoscopy centres located in Europe and South America., Participants: 2215 patients (2198 completing the study) at the first diagnosis of diverticulosis/diverticular disease were enrolled. Patients were scored according to DICA classifications., Interventions: A 3-year follow-up was performed., Main Outcome Measures: To predict the acute diverticulitis and the surgery according to DICA classification. Survival methods for censored observation were used to develop and validate a novel combined endoscopic-clinical score for predicting diverticulitis and surgery (CODA score)., Results: The 3-year cumulative probability of diverticulitis and surgery was of 3.3% (95% CI 2.5% to 4.5%) in DICA 1, 11.6% (95% CI 9.2% to 14.5%) in DICA 2 and 22.0% (95% CI 17.2% to 28.0%) in DICA 3 (p<0.001), and 0.15% (95% CI 0.04% to 0.59%) in DICA 1, 3.0% (95% CI 1.9% to 4.7%) in DICA 2 and 11.0% (95% CI 7.5% to 16.0%) in DICA 3 (p<0.001), respectively. The 3-year cumulative probability of diverticulitis and surgery was ≤4%, and ≤0.7% in CODA A; <10% and <2.5% in CODA B; >10% and >2.5% in CODA C, respectively. The CODA score showed optimal discrimination capacity in predicting the risk of surgery in the development (c-statistic: 0.829; 95% CI 0.811 to 0.846) and validation cohort (c-statistic: 0.943; 95% CI 0.905 to 0.981)., Conclusions: DICA classification has a significant role in predicting the risk of diverticulitis and surgery in patients with diverticulosis, which is significantly enhanced by the CODA score., Trial Registration Number: NCT02758860., Competing Interests: Competing interests: SD served as speaker, consultant and/or advisory board member for AbbVie, Allergan, Alfa Wassermann, Biogen, Boehringer Ingelheim, Celgene, Celltrion, Ferring, Gilead, Hospira, Johnson and Johnson, Merck, MSD, Mundipharma, Pfizer, Sandoz, Takeda, Tigenix, UCB Pharma, Vifor. GM served as speaker and/or advisory board fees for AlfaSigma, Arena, Janssen, Gilead, Roche. GN received funding for target projects from Apharm and Sofar. APserved as lecturer for AlfaSigma and Polpharma. JR served as lecturer for AlfaSigma, Takeda, Ipsen and Servier. FS served as lecturer for Sanofi., (© Author(s) (or their employer(s)) 2022. No commercial re-use. See rights and permissions. Published by BMJ.)

Purpose: The objective of this study is to analyse the appropriateness of lower extremity coputed tomography (CT) scans as performed in a large orthopaedic hospital., Material and Methods: A total of 1410 CT scans acquired in the years 2014-2018 were analysed for compliance with the "Guidelines for Physicians Issuing Diagnostic Imaging Referrals" (iRefer). These guidelines were published by the Royal Radiologist Society and recommended for use by the Polish Medical Society of Radiology, the National Consultant for Radiology and Diagnostic Imaging, and the Minister of Health. In addition, the study involved the analysis of information provided on CT referrals by referring clinicians., Results: Nearly 21% of CT referrals were found to be unsubstantiated based on the diagnosis made by the referring physician, the body region of interest, and the clinical department. Most referrals identified as non-compliant with the guidelines were related to cancers followed by inflammatory conditions. The lowest number of unjustified exams was reported for endoprostheses and injury-related cases., Conclusions: The study revealed a significant degree of non-compliance with the diagnostic algorithm as defined in the iRefer guidelines, particularly in cases of cancers and inflammatory conditions. Consequently, the patient's exposure to ionizing radiation is increased. Incorrect decisions regarding the appropriate diagnostic imaging technique are founded on the lack of appropriate cooperation between the clinician and the radiologist, insufficiency or lack of information provided on the referral, as well as the defensive attitude of referring physicians. It is therefore necessary to change appropriate in-hospital management and cooperation models., Competing Interests: The authors report no conflict of interest., (© Pol J Radiol 2022.)

Confocal laser endomicroscopy (CLE) is an advanced endoscopic imaging technology that provides a magnified, cellular level view of gastrointestinal epithelia. In conjunction with topical or intravenous fluorescent dyes, CLE allows for an "optical biopsy" for real-time diagnosis. Two different CLE system have been used in clinical endoscopy, probe-based CLE (pCLE) and endoscope-based CLE (eCLE). Using pCLE, the device can be delivered: (I) into the luminal gastrointestinal tract through the working channel of standard endoscopes; (II) into extraluminal cystic and solid parenchymal lesions through an endoscopic ultrasound (EUS) needle; or (III) into the biliary system through an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) accessory channel. With eCLE, the probe is directly integrated into the tip of a conventional endoscope, however, these endoscopes are no longer commercially available. CLE has moderate to high diagnostic accuracy for neoplastic and inflammatory conditions through the gastrointestinal tract including: oesophageal, gastric and colonic neoplasia, pancreatic cysts and solid lesions, malignant pancreatobiliary strictures and inflammatory bowel disease. Some studies have demonstrated the diagnostic benefit of CLE imaging when combined with either conventional white light endoscopy or advanced imaging technologies. Therefore, optical biopsies using CLE can resolve diagnostic dilemmas in some cases where conventional imaging fails to achieve conclusive results. CLE could also reduce the requirement for extensive tissue sampling during surveillance procedures. In the future, CLE in combination with molecular probes, could allow for the molecular characterization of diseases and assess response to targeted therapy. However, the narrow field of view, high capital costs and specialized operator training requirements remain the main limitations. Future multi-center, randomized trials with a focus on conventional diagnostic applications, cost-effectiveness and standardized training will be required for definitive evidence. The objective of this review is to evaluate the technical aspects and current applications of CLE in patients with gastrointestinal and pancreatobiliary diseases and discuss future directions for this technique., Competing Interests: Conflicts of Interest: All authors have completed the ICMJE uniform disclosure form (available at https://tgh.amegroups.com/article/view/10.21037/tgh.2020.04.02/coif). The series “Advanced endoscopic imaging of the GI tract” was commissioned by the editorial office without any funding or sponsorship. The authors have no other conflicts of interest to declare., (2022 Translational Gastroenterology and Hepatology. All rights reserved.)

Prognosis in gastric cancer patients is highly dependent on the tumor stage at presentation. Surgery still remains the main therapeutic option in gastric cancer patients. However, the efficacy of this treatment may be substantially limited by the risk of peritoneal dissemination. The introduction of hyperthermic intraperitoneal chemotherapy (HIPEC) may affect the long-term outcomes in this group of patients, but high morbidity associated with this procedure provides the rationale to identify the correct population of patients for HIPEC. The aim of the study was to evaluate a long-term prognostic value of peritoneal washing immunocytochemistry as a prognostic factor in patients with gastric cancer. This is a prospective, long-term analysis of patients who underwent peritoneal lavage with immunocytochemistry assessment in the Maria Sklodowska-Curie National Research Institute of Oncology, in Warsaw, Poland. Between January 2002 and November 2004, a total of 157 patients with histologically confirmed gastric cancer were enrolled in the study. Laparotomy and intra-operative peritoneal lavage for immunocytochemistry examination were performed prior to gastrectomy. All patients were followed up with endpoints of cancer recurrence and mortality. Positive peritoneal washing immunocytochemistry was associated with clinical staging of gastric cancer, overall survival, and progression-free survival. It is an independent poor outcome prognostic factor.

B a c k g r o u n d: To assess and compare mid-term outcomes and the quality of life (QoL) in patients with multivessel coronary artery disease (MVD) and moderate ischemic mitral regurgitation (IMR), treated with either coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG; group I) or CABG + mitral annuloplasty (CABG+MA; group II) in 12-months follow-up after surgery. M e t h o d s: We prospectively analyzed 74 patients (50.7% female, 66 [67-72] years) with at least moderate IMR, 3-24 weeks after myocardial infarction (MI). The effective regurgitation orifice (ERO) was used for a quantitative IMR assessment. To evaluate QoL we used a Short Form-36 (SF-36) questionnaire. R e s u l t s: Patients in group II spent more time in the hospital, expired more infection complications and received more often in-hospital complications requiring use amines and intra-aortic balloon pump as compared to those in group I. Analysis of SF-36 showed that all patients treated surgically notable improved their QoL during 12 months of follow-up. C o n c l u s i o n s: We observed a significant improvement in QoL among patients with MVD in 12 months follow-up after surgery irrespective of treatment type.

Background and Aims: Current understanding of the risk of neoplastic progression in patients with Barrett's esophagus with indefinite dysplasia (BE-IND) stems from small retrospective and pathology registry studies. In this multicenter cohort study, we aimed to determine the incidence and prevalence of neoplasia in BE-IND., Methods: Patients with confirmed BE-IND from 2 academic centers were included if they had no previous evidence of dysplasia and underwent endoscopic follow-up (FU) of ≥1 year. The rate of progression to neoplasia was calculated and categorized as prevalent (progression within 1 year of FU) and incident (progression after 1 year of FU). Multivariable regression adjusted for relevant clinical features was performed to identify risk factors for progression., Results: Four hundred sixty-five patients diagnosed with BE-IND were identified between 1997 and 2017, of which 223 (48.0%) were excluded. Of the remaining 242 patients, 184 (76.0%) had no evidence of dysplasia during FU. In 23 patients (9.5%), prevalent neoplasia occurred (20 low-grade dysplasia [LGD], 2 high-grade dysplasia [HGD], 1 intramucosal cancer [IMC]), whereas 35 patients (14.5%) developed incident neoplasia (27 LGD, 5 HGD, 3 IMC), after a median 1.5 years (interquartile range, 0.6-3.2 years). The incidence rates of any neoplasia and HGD/IMC were 3.2 and 0.6 cases/100 patient-years, respectively. BE length correlated with an increased risk of prevalent (odds ratio, 1.18 per 1 cm; 95% confidence interval, 1.02-1.38; P = .033) and incident neoplasia (odds ratio, 1.02; 95% confidence interval, 1.00-1.03; P = .016)., Conclusion: Patients with BE-IND should be closely monitored, because nearly a quarter harbor or will shortly develop dysplasia. BE length is a clinical predictor of neoplastic progression; however, more-accurate molecular biomarkers for risk stratification are warranted., (Copyright © 2021 American Society for Gastrointestinal Endoscopy. Published by Elsevier Inc. All rights reserved.)

BACKGROUND The chest X-ray is the most available imaging modality enabling semi-quantitative evaluation of pulmonary involvement. Parametric evaluation of chest radiographs in patients with SARS-CoV-2 infection is crucial for triage and therapeutic management. The CXR Score (Brixia Score), SARI CXR Severity Scoring System, and Radiographic Assessment of Lung Edema (RALE), proposed to evaluate SARS-CoV-2 infiltration of the lungs, were analyzed for interobserver agreement. MATERIAL AND METHODS This study analyzed 200 chest X-rays from 200 consecutive patients with confirmed SARS-CoV-2 infection, hospitalized at the Central Clinical Hospital of the Ministry of the Interior and Administration in Warsaw. Radiographs were evaluated by 2 radiologists according to 3 scales: SARI, RALE, and CXR Score. RESULTS The overall interobserver agreement for SARI ratings was good (kappa=0.755; 95% CI, 0.817-0.694), for RALE scale assessments it was very good (kappa=0.818; 95% CI, 0.844-0.793), and for CXR scale assessments it was very good (kappa=0.844; 95% CI, 0.846-0.841). A moderate correlation was found between the radiological image assessed using each of the scales and the clinical condition of the patient in MEWS (Modified Early Warning Score) (r=0.425-0.591). CONCLUSIONS The analyzed scales are characterized by good or very good interobserver agreement of assessments of the extent of pulmonary infiltration. Since the CXR Score showed the strongest correlation with the clinical condition of the patient as expressed using the MEWS scale, it is the preferred scale for chest radiograph assessment of patients with COVID-19 in the light of data provided.

BACKGROUND Imaging-based quantitative assessment of lung lesions plays a key role in patient triage and therapeutic decision-making processes. The aim of our study was to validate the Total Severity Score (TSS), Chest Computed Tomography Score (CT-S), and Chest CT Severity Score (CT-SS) scales, which were used to assess the extent of lung inflammation in patients with SARS-CoV-2 infection in terms of interobserver agreement and the correlation of scores with patient clinical condition on the day of the study. MATERIAL AND METHODS A total of 77 chest CT scans collected from 77 consecutive patients hospitalized because of SARS-CoV-2 were included. The scans were assessed independently by 2 radiologists aware of the patients' positive results of RT-PCR tests. Each chest CT was assessed according to the 3 scales. To assess the interobserver agreement of CT scan assessments, Cohen's k and intraclass correlation coefficient (ICC) were calculated. RESULTS For the overall assessment, the k was 0.944 and the ICC was 0.948 for the TSS; the kappa was 0.909 and the ICC was 0.919 for the CT-S; and the k was 0.888 and the ICC was 0.899 for the CT-SS. The CT-SS (r=0.627 for Radiologist 1 and r=0.653 for Radiologist 2) revealed the strongest positive correlation with the patient clinical condition as expressed using the Modified Early Warning Score. CONCLUSIONS The interobserver agreement for the 3 evaluated scales was very good. The CT-SS was found to have the strongest positive relationship with the Modified Early Warning Score.

Competing Interests: The authors declare that they have no conflict of interest.

Clinical diagnosis of epilepsy depends heavily on the detection of interictal epileptiform discharges (IEDs) from scalp electroencephalographic (EEG) signals, which by purely visual means is far from straightforward. Here, we introduce a simple signal analysis procedure based on scalp EEG zero-crossing patterns which can extract the spatiotemporal structure of scalp voltage fluctuations. We analyzed simultaneous scalp and intracranial EEG recordings from patients with pharmacoresistant temporal lobe epilepsy. Our data show that a large proportion of intracranial IEDs manifest only as subtle, low-amplitude waveforms below scalp EEG background and could, therefore, not be detected visually. We found that scalp zero-crossing patterns allow detection of these intracranial IEDs on a single-trial level with millisecond temporal precision and including some mesial temporal discharges that do not propagate to the neocortex. Applied to an independent dataset, our method discriminated accurately between patients with epilepsy and normal subjects, confirming its practical applicability.

Objective: The best approach for Helicobacter pylori management remains unclear. An audit process is essential to ensure clinical practice is aligned with best standards of care., Design: International multicentre prospective non-interventional registry starting in 2013 aimed to evaluate the decisions and outcomes in H. pylori management by European gastroenterologists. Patients were registered in an e-CRF by AEG-REDCap. Variables included demographics, previous eradication attempts, prescribed treatment, adverse events and outcomes. Data monitoring was performed to ensure data quality. Time-trend and geographical analyses were performed., Results: 30 394 patients from 27 European countries were evaluated and 21 533 (78%) first-line empirical H. pylori treatments were included for analysis. Pretreatment resistance rates were 23% to clarithromycin, 32% to metronidazole and 13% to both. Triple therapy with amoxicillin and clarithromycin was most commonly prescribed (39%), achieving 81.5% modified intention-to-treat eradication rate. Over 90% eradication was obtained only with 10-day bismuth quadruple or 14-day concomitant treatments. Longer treatment duration, higher acid inhibition and compliance were associated with higher eradication rates. Time-trend analysis showed a region-dependent shift in prescriptions including abandoning triple therapies, using higher acid-inhibition and longer treatments, which was associated with an overall effectiveness increase (84%-90%)., Conclusion: Management of H. pylori infection by European gastroenterologists is heterogeneous, suboptimal and discrepant with current recommendations. Only quadruple therapies lasting at least 10 days are able to achieve over 90% eradication rates. European recommendations are being slowly and heterogeneously incorporated into routine clinical practice, which was associated with a corresponding increase in effectiveness., Competing Interests: Competing interests: JPG has served as speaker, consultant and advisory member for or has received research funding from Mayoly, Allergan and Diasorin. OPN has received a research grant from Allergan. JM-I has served as a consultant for Casen Recordati and has received retribution from Allergan for formative actions. MC-F has received retribution from Allergan for formative actions. PB has served as speaker, consultant and advisory member for or has received research funding from Almirall, Allergan and Reckitt Benckiser. APA has received retribution from Allergan and Mylan for formative actions. DSB has served as lecturer for Astellas, AstraZeneca, KRKA and Abbott., (© Author(s) (or their employer(s)) 2021. No commercial re-use. See rights and permissions. Published by BMJ.)

BACKGROUND Vestibular compensation is disrupted in patients with chronic vestibular syndrome. Vestibular rehabilitation is an exercise therapy that optimizes the process of vestibular compensation. This study aimed to evaluate virtual reality (VR) vestibular rehabilitation in 20 patients with vertigo due to peripheral vestibular dysfunction at a single center.Our study aim was to initially assess the impact of using virtual reality technology in vestibular rehabilitation. MATERIAL AND METHODS The subjects were 20 patients with unilateral vestibular hypofunction (UVH), as confirmed by videonystagmography. These were divided into 2 groups: Group 1 underwent vestibular rehabilitation using virtual reality and Group 2 was treated by conventional therapy. A VSS-SF questionnaire and the VAS scale were used to assess the effects and levels of patient satisfaction with therapy. RESULTS Both groups demonstrated significantly (P.

Purpose: To evaluate the effect of Mydrane (contains tropicamide, phenylephrine hydrochloride, and lidocaine hydrochloride) on time needed to induce mydriasis and mydriasis stability during cataract surgery. Methods: This was an observational, non-interventional, multicenter study of patients undergoing cataract surgery who received Mydrane for mydriasis and intraocular anesthesia. The study was conducted at seven ophthalmology departments at university hospitals in Poland. Patients admitted for cataract surgery within a 2-week period were asked to participate in the study. Patients whose pupils dilated to a diameter ≥6 mm after topical mydriatic administration during preoperative examinations were scheduled to receive Mydrane and included in the registry. No additional inclusion criteria were used. Patients' medical histories, examination results, and operative details were recorded. Pupil diameter was measured during surgery. Surgeons were asked to complete a Likert-based survey in parallel. Results: A total of 307 patients were enrolled. The mean pupil diameter was 7.0 ± 1.0 mm before capsulorhexis and 6.9 ± 1.2 mm before lens implementation. A pupil diameter ≥6 mm was achieved in 91.9% and 87.6% of patients before capsulorhexis and lens implantation, respectively. We asked 58 surgeons whether they agreed with the statement "Mydriasis was obtained in a short time after the administration of Mydrane"; the surgeons agreed with this statement after 92.2% (283/307) of surgeries. In addition, after 88.2% of surgeries, the surgeons agreed with the statement "Mydriasis was stable after the administration of Mydrane." Conclusions: Mydriasis was rapidly and stably obtained after Mydrane injection, as demonstrated by pupil diameter measurements during surgery and surgeons' feedback.

Background: Predictors of long‑term outcomes and an optimal catheter set for ablation of the cavotricuspid isthmus in patients with atrial flutter (AFL) are not well known., Aims: This study aimed to identify predictors of clinical events following ablation., Methods: We studied 741 patients (mean [SD] age, 62.2 [10.8] years; 248 women) who were followed for a mean (SD) time of 4.4 (2.7) years. The 2- versus 3‑electrode approach and clinical predictors ofclinical events during follow‑up were analyzed., Results: The 2‑electrode approach was faster (mean [SD] time, 62.5 [30.3] vs 101.4 [51] min; P <0.001), associated with shorter fluoroscopy time (13.1 [9.3] vs 20.3 [12.4] min; P < 0.001), cost‑effective (8.29 [2.82] vs 11.89 [2.51] units; P <0.001), and more effective (92.1% vs 86.1%; P = 0.012). The independent predictors of AFL recurrence were: calcium blocker use (hazard ratio [HR], 3.24; 95% CI, 1.64-6.4), mitral valve disease (HR, 1.82; 95% CI, 1.12-2.95), previous stroke and/ or TIA (HR, 2.38; 95% CI, 1.21-4.65), pulmonary artery dilatation (HR, 3.94; 95% CI, 1.22-12.73), and previous pulmonary embolism (HR, 3.77; 95% CI, 1.14-12.43); of atrial fibrillation (AF): previous AF (HR, 6.054; 95% CI, 4.58-8), left atrial enlargement (HR, 1.43; 95% CI, 1.12-1.81), number of antiarrhythmic drugs used (HR, 1.16; 95% CI, 1.05-1.28), and mitral valve disease (HR, 1.28; 95% CI, 1.04-1.58); of pacemaker implantation: tachycardia‑bradycardia syndrome (HR, 6.17; 95% CI, 3.16-12.05), previous second-/third‑degree atrioventricular block (HR, 29.4; 95% CI, 7.37-117.28), centrally acting hypotensive drugs (HR, 29.55; 95% CI, 6.14-142.25), aortic dilatation or aneurysm (HR, 2.58; 95% CI, 1.06-6.3), a labile international normalized ratio (HR, 3.45; 95% CI, 1.72-6.93), left bundle branch block (HR, 4.7; 95% CI, 1.49-14.82), the shortest R‑R interval during AFL (HR, 1.003; 95% CI, 1.001-1.005), previous cardiac surgery (HR, 2.69; 95% CI, 1.27-5.7), and aortic valve disease (HR, 2.22; 95% CI, 1.08-4.59)., Conclusion: Ablation of cavotricuspid isthmus with a minimal number of electrodes is safe and effective. Specific predictors of clinical events during long‑term follow-up can be determined.

Background: Radiofrequency ablation (RFA) is an effective treatment for dysplastic Barrett's esophagus (BE), but recurrence can occur after initial response. Currently there is uncertainty about how to best define histological remission. A DNA methylation panel on esophageal samples was previously shown to have high diagnostic accuracy for BE. We aimed to investigate this biomarker panel in the assessment of response to RFA treatment., Methods: We retrospectively analyzed esophageal and gastroesophageal junction (GEJ) biopsies from patients with BE before and after RFA treatment. We quantified the extent of intestinal metaplasia (IM) based on number of glands with goblet cells (IM-Score) and expression of the intestinal factor trefoil factor-3 (TFF3-Score). Promoter methylation of 3 genes (ZNF345, TFP12, ZNF569) was measured by methylight (Meth-Score) throughout the RFA treatment pathway., Findings: We included 45 patients (11 non-dysplastic BE, 14 low-grade dysplasia, 20 high-grade dysplasia/intramucosal cancer). Meth-Scores were significantly higher in BE with and without dysplasia and GEJ with IM compared to GEJ without IM (P<·001). Meth-scores significantly correlated with the extent of IM at the GEJ measured both with IM-Scores (rho=66·0%, P<·001), and TFF3-Scores (rho=75·6%, P<·001). In patients with residual IM at the GEJ, RFA re-treatment brought about a 7·6-fold reduction in the methylation levels. The Meth-score had an area under the ROC curve of 95·1% (95%CI 91·1% - 99·1%) differentiating BE from normal GEJ., Interpretation: A DNA methylation panel can discriminate between the extent of histological IM in esophageal and junctional biopsies and could be used to objectively quantify residual disease following RFA., (Copyright © 2020 The Authors. Published by Elsevier B.V. All rights reserved.)

Background: Fourth-generation formulas for intraocular lens power calculations, including the Barrett Universal II formula, the Olsen formula or the Holladay 2 formula, were thoroughly validated with optical biometry measurements. They precisely predict the effective lens position not only in normal eyes but also in eyes with unusual anatomy. However, in the setting of dense nuclear or posterior subcapsular cataracts, optical biometers fail to obtain accurate measurements and third-generation formulas, i.e. the Hoffer Q or the SRK/T, combined with ultrasound measurements are a method of choice. Considering that optical biometry was fine-tuned to immersion ultrasound, we hypothesize that fourth-generation formulas will yield precise intraocular lens power calculations with immersion ultrasound measurements., Methods: We retrospectively analyzed 50 eyes of 50 patients who underwent uneventful cataract surgery. All patients had intraocular lens power calculated based on immersion ultrasound measurements. Refractive error predictions were compared between third-generation formulas and fourth-generation formulas., Results: There were no statistically significant differences in the median absolute error between formulas. In the study, 86%, 88%, 86%, 84%, 88% and 80% of eyes were within 1 D of target refraction for the SRK/T, the Barrett II, the Hoffer Q, the Holladay 1, the Holladay 2 and the Olsen formula respectively., Conclusion: Fourth-generation formulas combined with immersion ultrasound produced similar results to third-generation formulas. However, the percentage of eyes within 1 D of target refraction remains inferior to previously reported results for optical biometry measurements., Competing Interests: The authors declare no conflicts of interest in this work., (© 2020 Skrzypecki et al.)

Background: Experience in Helicobacter pylori eradication treatment of patients allergic to penicillin is very scarce. A triple combination with a PPI, clarithromycin (C), and metronidazole (M) is often prescribed as the first option, although more recently the use of a quadruple therapy with PPI, bismuth (B), tetracycline (T), and M has been recommended., Aim: To evaluate the efficacy and safety of first-line and rescue treatments in patients allergic to penicillin in the "European Registry of H pylori management" (Hp-EuReg)., Methods: A systematic prospective registry of the clinical practice of European gastroenterologists (27 countries, 300 investigators) on the management of H pylori infection. An e-CRF was created on AEG-REDCap. Patients with penicillin allergy were analyzed until June 2019., Results: One-thousand eighty-four patients allergic to penicillin were analyzed. The most frequently prescribed first-line treatments were as follows: PPI + C + M (n = 285) and PPI + B + T + M (classic or Pylera ® ; n = 250). In first line, the efficacy of PPI + C + M was 69%, while PPI + B + T + M reached 91% (P < .001). In second line, after the failure of PPI + C + M, two rescue options showed similar efficacy: PPI + B + T + M (78%) and PPI + C + levofloxacin (L) (71%) (P > .05). In third line, after the failure of PPI + C + M and PPI + C + L, PPI + B + T + M was successful in 75% of cases., Conclusion: In patients allergic to penicillin, a triple combination with PPI + C + M should not be generally recommended as a first-line treatment, while a quadruple regimen with PPI + B + T + M seems to be a better option. As a rescue treatment, this quadruple regimen (if not previously prescribed) or a triple regimen with PPI + C + L could be used but achieved suboptimal (<80%) results., (© 2020 John Wiley & Sons Ltd.)

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a widely used method for the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis (MS) that is essential for the detection and follow-up of the disease. The Polish Medical Society of Radiology (PLTR) and the Polish Society of Neurology (PTN) present the second version of the recommendations for examinations routinely conducted in magnetic resonance imaging departments in patients with MS, which include new data and practical comments for electroradiology technicians and radiologists. The recommended protocol aims to improve the MRI procedure and, most importantly, to standardise the method of conducting scans in all MRI departments. This is crucial for the initial diagnostics that are necessary to establish a diagnosis as well as monitor patients with MS, which directly translates into significant clinical decisions. MS is a chronic idiopathic inflammatory demyelinating disease of the central nervous system (CNS), the aetiology of which is still unknown. The nature of the disease lies in the CNS destruction process disseminated in time and space. MRI detects focal lesions in the white and grey matter with high sensitivity (with significantly less specificity in the latter). It is also the best tool to assess brain atrophy in patients with MS in terms of grey matter volume and white matter volume as well as local atrophy (by measuring the volume of thalamus, corpus callosum, subcortical nuclei, hippocampus) as parameters that correlate with disability progression and cognitive dysfunctions. Progress in magnetic resonance techniques, as well as the abilities of postprocessing the obtained data, has become the basis for the dynamic development of computer programs that allow for a more repeatable assessment of brain atrophy in both cross-sectional and longitudinal studies. MRI is unquestionably the best diagnostic tool used to follow up the course of the disease and to treat patients with MS. However, to diagnose and follow up the patients with MS on the basis of MRI in accordance with the latest standards, an MRI study must meet certain quality criteria, which are the subject of this paper., Competing Interests: The authors report no conflict of interest., (Copyright © Polish Medical Society of Radiology 2020.)

Purpose: Identification of the group of patients meeting the criteria of a severe multiple trauma (polytrauma) among those admitted to the regional trauma centre and subjected to whole-body computed tomography (WBCT) due to injuries. Identification the patients for whom WBCT was the optimal choice., Material and Methods: Retrospective analysis of the data of 303 patients undergoing WBCT in the period 2015-2017 with assessment of the injury severity based on the abbreviated injury scale (AIS) and injury severity score (ISS)., Results: Among 303 patients undergoing WBCT due to trauma, multiple injuries with ISS > 15 were found in 74 individuals (24.4%). After excluding patients whose limb fractures increased ISS above 15, the group decreased to 63 patients (20.8%). For these patients, the WBCT may be described as the optimal imaging method at an early stage of management., Conclusions: Trauma patients are too often qualified for WBCT. Exposure to a high dose of ionising radiation associated with this modality requires critical analysis of the scope of indications and rules of conduct for trauma teams., Competing Interests: The authors report no conflict of interest., (Copyright © Polish Medical Society of Radiology 2020.)

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a widely used method for the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis that is essential for the detection and follow-up of the disease. OBJECTIVE: The Polish Medical Society of Radiology (PLTR) and the Polish Society of Neurology (PTN) present the second version of their recommendations for investigations routinely conducted in magnetic resonance imaging departments in patients with multiple sclerosis. This version includes new data and practical comments for electroradiology technologists and radiologists. The recommended protocol aims to improve the MRI procedure and, most importantly, to standardise the method of conducting scans in all MRI departments. This is crucial for the initial diagnostics necessary for establishing a diagnosis, as well as for MS patient monitoring, which directly translates into significant clinical decisions. INTRODUCTION: Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a chronic immune mediated inflammatory demyelinating disease of the central nervous system (CNS), the aetiology of which is still unknown. The nature of the disease lies in a CNS destruction process disseminated in time (DIT) and space (DIS). MRI detects focal lesions in the white and grey matter with high sensitivity (although with significantly lower specificity in the latter). It is also the best tool to assess brain atrophy in patients with MS in terms of grey matter volume (GMV) and white matter volume (WMV) as well as local atrophy (by measuring the volume of thalamus, corpus callosum, subcortical nuclei, and hippocampus) as parameters that correlate with disability progression and cognitive dysfunctions. Progress in MR techniques, as well as advances in postprocessing the obtained data, has driven the dynamic development of computer programs that allow for a more repeatable assessment of brain atrophy in both cross-sectional and longitudinal studies. MR imaging is unquestionably the best diagnostic tool available to follow up the course of the disease and support clinicians in choosing the most appropriate treatment strategy for their MS patient. However, to diagnose and follow up MS patients on the basis of MRI in accordance with the latest standards, the MRI study must adhere to certain quality criteria. Such criteria are the subject of this paper.

Background: Proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs) are the mainstay of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) treatment, however, up to 30% of patients have a poor symptomatic response. PH-impedance is the gold standard to assess whether this is due to persistent acid reflux. We aimed to characterize clinical predictors of persistent esophageal acid reflux on PPIs including gastric pH measured during endoscopy., Methods: We prospectively recruited patients with GERD and/or Barrett's esophagus (BE) on PPIs. All patients completed a symptom questionnaire (RDQ) and underwent gastroscopy with gastric pH analysis, immediately followed by ambulatory 24-hour pH-impedance. We used a modified cut-off of 1.3% for pathological esophageal acid exposure time (AET). Multiple linear regression model was used to analyze the correlation between AET and predictive variables., Results: We recruited 122 patients, of which 92 (75.4%) were included in the final analysis [44 male (47.8%), median age 53 years (IQR: 43-66)]. Forty-four patients (47.8%) had persistent acid reflux with a median total AET of 2.2 (IQR1.2-5.0), as compared to 0.1 (IQR 0.0-0.2) in patients without persistent reflux (n=48; P <.001). There was no difference in age, gender, BMI, PPI-regimen, diagnosis of hiatus hernia or BE, and severity of symptoms between patients with normal and abnormal AET. Median gastric pH was significantly lower in patients with abnormal AET (5.8 vs 6.6, P =0.032) and it correlated with the total AET ( P =.045; R 2 =12.0%). With a pH cut-off of 5.05, single point endoscopic gastric pH analysis had an area under the ROC curve (AUC) of 63.0% (95%CI 51.3-74.7) for prediction of pathological esophageal AET., Conclusions: Symptoms and clinical characteristics are not useful to predict persistent acid reflux in patients on PPIs. One-point gastric pH correlates with 24-hour esophageal AET and could guide clinicians to assess response to PPIs, however, its utility needs validation in larger studies., Competing Interests: Conflict of Interest: All of the authors disclose no conflict of interest.

ESGE recommends that individuals with Lynch syndrome should be followed in dedicated units that practice monitoring of compliance and endoscopic performance measures.Strong recommendation, low quality evidence, level of agreement 100 %.ESGE recommends starting colonoscopy surveillance at the age of 25 years for MLH1 and MSH2 mutation carriers and at the age of 35 years for MSH6 and PMS2 mutation carriers.Strong recommendation, moderate quality evidence, level of agreement 100 %. ESGE recommends the routine use of high-definition endoscopy systems in individuals with Lynch syndrome. Strong recommendation, high quality evidence, level of agreement 100 %. ESGE suggests the use of chromoendoscopy may be of benefit in individuals with Lynch syndrome undergoing colonoscopy; however routine use must be balanced against costs, training, and practical considerations.Weak recommendation, moderate quality evidence, level of agreement 89 %.ESGE recommends definition of familial risk of colorectal cancer as the presence of at least two first-degree relatives with colorectal cancer or at least one first-degree relative with colorectal cancer before the age of 50 years.Strong recommendation, moderate quality evidence, level of agreement 92 %.ESGE recommends colonoscopy surveillance in first-degree relatives of colorectal cancer patients in families that fulfill the definition of familial risk of colorectal cancer.Strong recommendation, moderate quality evidence, level of agreement 100 %., Competing Interests: E. Dekker was an advisory board chair for Cancer Prevention Pharmaceuticals (2019) and is a Co-Editor for Endoscopy. M.F. Kaminski has received speaker’s, teaching, and consultancy fees from Olympus (2017 to present) and speaker’s and teaching fees, and a loan of equipment from Fujifilm (2019). H. Neuman has provided consultancy services to Fujifilm and Pentax (2012 to present). M. Pellisé has received consultancy fees from Norgine Iberia (2019), speaker’s fees from Casen Recordati (2017 – 2019), Olympus (2017), and Jansen (2018), and is a Co-Editor for Endoscopy; her department has received an equipment loan from Fujifilm (2017 to present) and a research donation from Fujifilm (2019). J.E. van Hooft has received lecture fees from Medtronics (2014 – 2015) and Cook Medical (2019), and consultancy fees from Boston Scientific (2014 – 2017); her department has received research grants from Cook Medical (2014 – 2018) and Abbott (2014 – 2017). F. Balaguer, R. Jover, A. Latchford, L. Ricciardiello, V.H. Roos, M. Rupińska, J.-C. Saurin, P.J. Tanis, M. E. van Leerdam, and A. Wagner have no competing interests., (© Georg Thieme Verlag KG Stuttgart · New York.)

Papillary renal cell carcinoma (pRCC) is the second most common renal cell carcinoma (RCC) subtype and accounts for 10-15% of all RCCs. Despite clinical need, few pharmacogenomics studies in pRCC have been performed. Moreover, current research fails to adequately include pRCC laboratory models, such as the ACHN or Caki-2 pRCC cell lines. The molecular mechanisms involved in pRCC development and drug resistance are more diverse than in clear-cell RCC, in which inactivation of VHL occurs in the majority of tumours. Drug resistance to multiple therapies in pRCC occurs via genetic alteration (such as mutations resulting in abnormal receptor tyrosine kinase activation or RALBP1 inhibition), dysregulation of signalling pathways (such as GSK3β-EIF4EBP1, PI3K-AKT and the MAPK or interleukin signalling pathways), deregulation of cellular processes (such as resistance to apoptosis or epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition) and interactions between the cell and its environment (for example, through activation of matrix metalloproteinases). Improved understanding of resistance mechanisms will facilitate drug discovery and provide new effective therapies. Further studies on novel resistance biomarkers are needed to improve patient prognosis and stratification as well as drug development.

Background and Aims: Inflammatory bowel disease is associated with an increased risk of colorectal cancer, with estimates ranging 2-18%, depending on the duration of colitis. The management of neoplasia in colitis remains controversial. Current guidelines recommend endoscopic resection if the lesion is clearly visible with distinct margins. Colectomy is recommended if complete endoscopic resection is not guaranteed. We aimed to assess the outcomes of all neoplastic endoscopic resections in inflammatory bowel disease., Methods: This was a multicentre retrospective cohort study of 119 lesions of visible dysplasia in 93 patients, resected endoscopically in inflammatory bowel disease., Results: A total of 6/65 [9.2%] lesions <20 mm in size were treated by ESD [endoscopic submucosal dissection] compared with 59/65 [90.8%] lesions <20 mm treated by EMR [endoscopic mucosal resection]; 16/51 [31.4%] lesions >20 mm in size were treated by EMR vs 35/51 [68.6%] by ESD. Almost all patients [97%] without fibrosis were treated by EMR, and patients with fibrosis were treated by ESD [87%], p < 0.001. In all, 49/78 [63%] lesions treated by EMR were resected en-bloc and 27/41 [65.9%] of the ESD/KAR [knife-assisted resection] cases were resected en-bloc, compared with 15/41 [36.6%] resected piecemeal. Seven recurrences occurred in the cohort. Seven complications occurred in the cohort; six were managed endoscopically and one patient with a delayed perforation underwent surgery., Conclusions: Larger lesions with fibrosis are best treated by ESD, whereas smaller lesions without fibrosis are best managed by EMR. Both EMR and ESD are feasible in the management of endoscopic resections in colitis., (Copyright © 2019 European Crohn’s and Colitis Organisation (ECCO). Published by Oxford University Press. All rights reserved. For permissions, please email: journals.permissions@oup.com.)

Objective: The incidence of colorectal cancer (CRC) declines among subjects aged 50 years and above. An opposite trend appears among younger adults. In Europe, data on CRC incidence among younger adults are lacking. We therefore aimed to analyse European trends in CRC incidence and mortality in subjects younger than 50 years., Design: Data on age-related CRC incidence and mortality between 1990 and 2016 were retrieved from national and regional cancer registries. Trends were analysed by Joinpoint regression and expressed as annual percent change., Results: We retrieved data on 143.7 million people aged 20-49 years from 20 European countries. Of them, 187 918 (0.13%) were diagnosed with CRC. On average, CRC incidence increased with 7.9% per year among subjects aged 20-29 years from 2004 to 2016. The increase in the age group of 30-39 years was 4.9% per year from 2005 to 2016, the increase in the age group of 40-49 years was 1.6% per year from 2004 to 2016. This increase started earliest in subjects aged 20-29 years, and 10-20 years later in those aged 30-39 and 40-49 years. This is consistent with an age-cohort phenomenon. Although in most European countries the CRC incidence had risen, some heterogeneity was found between countries. CRC mortality did not significantly change among the youngest adults, but decreased with 1.1%per year between 1990 and 2016 and 2.4% per year between 1990 and 2009 among those aged 30-39 years and 40-49 years, respectively., Conclusion: CRC incidence rises among young adults in Europe. The cause for this trend needs to be elucidated. Clinicians should be aware of this trend. If the trend continues, screening guidelines may need to be reconsidered., Competing Interests: Competing interests: None declared., (© Author(s) (or their employer(s)) 2019. Re-use permitted under CC BY. Published by BMJ.)

ESGE recommends that individuals with hereditary gastrointestinal polyposis syndromes should be surveilled in dedicated units that provide monitoring of compliance and endoscopic performance measures. Strong recommendation, moderate quality of evidence, level of agreement 90 %.ESGE recommends performing esophagogastroduodenoscopy, small-bowel examination, and/or colonoscopy earlier than the planned surveillance procedure if a patient is symptomatic. Strong recommendation, low quality of evidence, level of agreement 100 %., Competing Interests: E. Dekker was an advisory board chair for Cancer Prevention Pharmaceuticals (2019) and is a co-editor for Endoscopy. M. F. Kaminski has received speaker’s, teaching, and consultancy fees from Olympus (2017 to present) and speaker’s and teaching fees, and a loan of equipment from Fujifilm (2019). H. Neuman has provided consultancy services to Fujifilm and Pentax (2012 to present). M. Pellisé has received consultancy fees from Norgine Iberia (2019), speaker’s fees from Casen Recordati (2017 – 2019), Olympus (2017), and Jansen (2018), and is a co-editor for Endoscopy; her department has received an equipment loan from Fujifilm (2017 to present) and a research donation from Fujifilm (2019). J. E. van Hooft has received lecture fees from Medtronics (2014 – 2015) and Cook Medical (2019), and consultancy fees from Boston Scientific (2014 – 2017); her department has received research grants from Cook Medical (2014 – 2018) and Abbott (2014 – 2017).F. Balaguer, R. Jover, A. Latchford, L. Ricciardiello, V. H. Roos, J.-C. Saurin, P. J. Tanis, M. E. van Leerdam, A. Wagner have no competing interests., (© Georg Thieme Verlag KG Stuttgart · New York.)

Background and Aims: The diagnosis of gastric premalignant conditions (GPCs) relies on endoscopy with mucosal sampling. We hypothesized that the endoscopist biopsy rate (EBR) might constitute a quality indicator for EGD, and we have analyzed its association with GPC detection and the rate of missed gastric cancers (GCs)., Methods: We analyzed EGD databases from 2 high-volume outpatient units. EBR values, defined as the proportion of EGDs with ≥1 biopsy to all examinations were calculated for each endoscopist in Unit A (derivation cohort) and divided by the quartile values into 4 groups. Detection of GPC was calculated for each group and compared using multivariate clustered logistic regression models. Unit B database was used for validation. All patients were followed in the Cancer Registry for missed GCs diagnosed between 1 month and 3 years after EGDs with negative results., Results: Sixteen endoscopists in Unit A performed 17,490 EGDs of which 15,340 (87.7%) were analyzed. EBR quartile values were 22.4% to 36.7% (low EBR), 36.8% to 43.7% (moderate), 43.8% to 51.6% (high), and 51.7% and 65.8% (very-high); median value 43.8%. The odds ratios for the moderate, high, and very-high EBR groups of detecting GPC were 1.6 (95% confidence interval [CI], 1.3-1.9), 2.0 (95% CI, 1.7-2.4), and 2.5 (95% CI, 2.1-2.9), respectively, compared with the low EBR group (P < .001). This association was confirmed with the same thresholds in the validation cohort. Endoscopists with higher EBR (≥43.8%) had a lower risk of missed cancer compared with those in the lower EBR group (odds ratio, 0.44; 95% CI, 0.20-1.00; P = .049)., Conclusions: The EBR parameter is highly variable among endoscopists and is associated with efficacy in GPC detection and the rate of missed GCs., (Copyright © 2019 American Society for Gastrointestinal Endoscopy. Published by Elsevier Inc. All rights reserved.)