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Quasar feedback in the form of powerful outflows is invoked as a key mechanism to quench star formation in galaxies, preventing massive galaxies to overgrow and producing the red colors of ellipticals. On the other hand, some models are also requiring “positive” active galactic nucleus feedback, inducing star formation in the host galaxy through enhanced gas pressure in the interstellar medium. However, finding observational evidence of the effects of both types of feedback is still one of the main challenges of extragalactic astronomy, as few observations of energetic and extended radiatively driven winds are available. Here we present SINFONI near infrared integral field spectroscopy of XID2028, an obscured, radio-quiet z = 1.59 QSO detected in the XMM-COSMOS survey, in which we clearly resolve a fast (1500 km s–1) and extended (up to 13 kpc from the black hole) outflow in the [O III] lines emitting gas, whose large velocity and outflow rate are not sustainable by star formation only. The narrow component of Hα emission and the rest frame U-band flux from Hubble Space Telescope/Advanced Camera for Surveys imaging enable to map the current star formation in the host galaxy: both tracers independently show that the outflow position lies in the center of an empty cavity surrounded by star forming regions on its edge. The outflow is therefore removing the gas from the host galaxy (“negative feedback”), but also triggering star formation by outflow induced pressure at the edges (“positive feedback”). XID2028 represents the first example of a host galaxy showing both types of feedback simultaneously at work. [ABSTRACT FROM AUTHOR]

Fast radio bursts (FRBs) are millisecond-duration, bright (approximately Jy) extragalactic bursts, whose production mechanism is still unclear 1 . Recently, two repeating FRBs were found to have a physically associated persistent radio source of non-thermal origin 2,3 . These two FRBs have unusually large Faraday rotation measure values 2,3 , probably tracing a dense magneto-ionic medium, consistent with synchrotron radiation originating from a nebula surrounding the FRB source 4-8 . Recent theoretical arguments predict that, if the observed Faraday rotation measure mostly arises from the persistent radio source region, there should be a simple relation between the persistent radio source luminosity and the rotation measure itself 7,9 . Here we report the detection of a third, less luminous persistent radio source associated with the repeating FRB source FRB 20201124A at a distance of 413 Mpc, substantially expanding the predicted relation into the low luminosity-low Faraday rotation measure regime (<1,000 rad m -2 ). At lower values of the Faraday rotation measure, the expected radio luminosity falls below the limit-of-detection threshold for present-day radio telescopes. These findings support the idea that the persistent radio sources observed so far are generated by a nebula in the FRB environment and that FRBs with low Faraday rotation measure may not show a persistent radio source because of a weaker magneto-ionic medium. This is generally consistent with models invoking a young magnetar as the central engine of the FRB, in which the surrounding ionized nebula-or the interacting shock in a binary system-powers the persistent radio source., (© 2024. The Author(s), under exclusive licence to Springer Nature Limited.)

Bright quasars, powered by accretion onto billion-solar-mass black holes, already existed at the epoch of reionization, when the Universe was 0.5-1 billion years old 1 . How these black holes formed in such a short time is the subject of debate, particularly as they lie above the correlation between black-hole mass and galaxy dynamical mass 2,3 in the local Universe. What slowed down black-hole growth, leading towards the symbiotic growth observed in the local Universe, and when this process started, has hitherto not been known, although black-hole feedback is a likely driver 4 . Here we report optical and near-infrared observations of a sample of quasars at redshifts 5.8 ≲ z ≲ 6.6. About half of the quasar spectra reveal broad, blueshifted absorption line troughs, tracing black-hole-driven winds with extreme outflow velocities, up to 17% of the speed of light. The fraction of quasars with such outflow winds at z ≳ 5.8 is ≈2.4 times higher than at z ≈ 2-4. We infer that outflows at z ≳ 5.8 inject large amounts of energy into the interstellar medium and suppress nuclear gas accretion, slowing down black-hole growth. The outflow phase may then mark the beginning of substantial black-hole feedback. The red optical colours of outflow quasars at z ≳ 5.8 indeed suggest that these systems are dusty and may be caught during an initial quenching phase of obscured accretion 5 ., (© 2022. The Author(s), under exclusive licence to Springer Nature Limited.)

Stellar archaeology shows that massive elliptical galaxies formed rapidly about ten billion years ago with star-formation rates of above several hundred solar masses per year. Their progenitors are probably the submillimetre bright galaxies at redshifts z greater than 2. Although the mean molecular gas mass (5 × 10(10) solar masses) of the submillimetre bright galaxies can explain the formation of typical elliptical galaxies, it is inadequate to form elliptical galaxies that already have stellar masses above 2 × 10(11) solar masses at z ≈ 2. Here we report multi-wavelength high-resolution observations of a rare merger of two massive submillimetre bright galaxies at z = 2.3. The system is seen to be forming stars at a rate of 2,000 solar masses per year. The star-formation efficiency is an order of magnitude greater than that of normal galaxies, so the gas reservoir will be exhausted and star formation will be quenched in only around 200 million years. At a projected separation of 19 kiloparsecs, the two massive starbursts are about to merge and form a passive elliptical galaxy with a stellar mass of about 4 × 10(11) solar masses. We conclude that gas-rich major galaxy mergers with intense star formation can form the most massive elliptical galaxies by z ≈ 1.5.

Background: The epidermal growth factor (EGF) rs4444903 A>G polymorphism has been associated with the development of liver cancer, which commonly complicates cirrhosis of viral origin; however, whether this polymorphism might be associated with fibrosis progression in chronic viral hepatitis is unknown. The present study was performed to assess the allelic and genotypic frequencies of the rs4444903 A>G polymorphism in patients with chronic hepatitis C virus HCV infection and to ascertain whether this polymorphism might be an independent predictor of the degree of fibrosis., Methods: An RFLP-PCR technique was used to genotype 645 patients (211 with cirrhosis); 528 were referred for the diagnosis and treatment of chronic hepatitis C, and 117 were transplanted for HCV-related end stage liver disease. A group of 428 healthy subjects served as a control. All the subjects were of Caucasian ethnicity., Results: The EGF rs4444903 A>G polymorphism genotype frequencies in HCV chronic infected patients were as follows: A/A=227 (35.3%), A/G=328 (50.9%), and G/G=90 (14.8%). Genotype frequencies were found to differ between patients with an Ishak staging score⩽2 (A/A=117, A/G=157, G/G=34) and patients with a score>2 (A/A=110, A/G=171, G/G=56, p=0.038). A highly significant linear relationship between increasing stage scores and EGF genotype was detected in younger patients (A/A: 2.02±0.18, A/G: 2.55±0.17, G/G: 3.00±0.32, p=0.008). However, no significant association was detected between the stage score and EGF genotype in older patients (A/A: 3.79±0.19, A/G: 3.64±0.15, G/G: 3.98±0.30 p=0.579)., Conclusions: The EGF rs4444903 A>G polymorphism may facilitate liver fibrosis progression in Caucasian patients with chronic hepatitis C, especially in younger patients., (Copyright © 2011 Elsevier Ltd. All rights reserved.)

A major problem with the use of umbilical cord/placental blood (UCB) is the limited blood volume that can be collected from a single donor. In this study, we evaluated a novel system for the collection of UCB and analyzed the kinetics of output of hematopoietic stem cells in the collected blood. Sequential UCB fractions were collected from 48 placentas by gravity following common procedures. When UCB flow was ended, collection was continued using the device. Nucleated cell (NC) density in each fraction was evaluated and the expression of CD34, CD38 and other hematopoietic markers was assessed by flow cytometry. The total collected volume was 60.9 +/- 26.2 ml (mean +/- SD, range 17-141.5). The device yield (volume collected using the device/total volume) was 26.5 +/- 15.1%. No significant difference was observed in NC count in sequential fractions. A significant increase in CD34(+) cell content in sequential fractions and a 2.07 +/- 1.18-fold increase in the percentage of CD34(+) cells in the last versus first fraction were observed. Furthermore, within the CD34(+) population, the percentage of CD38(-) pluripotent stem cells in the first fraction was 3.24 +/- 1.39, while in the last fraction it raised to 34.43 +/- 22.62. Thus, at the end of a collection performed following current procedures, further blood rich in the most primitive progenitor cells can be recovered. Therefore, the optimization and standardization of collection procedures are required to obtain maximal recovery from each placenta and increase the percentage of UCB units suitable for clinical use.

This study describes the multilineage differentiation pattern of purified CD34+ stem cells obtained from human umbilical cord blood. CD34+ cells were collected from 49 umbilical cord blood samples. Following immunomagnetic purification, cells were double stained with anti CD34 and CD71, CD61, CD7, CD19, CD33, CD36 and triple stained with anti CD34, CD38 and HLA-DR. Analysis were performed using a FACScan flow cytometer. After purification, the mean CD34+ cells' purity was 85.49 +/- 7.08%. Several subpopulations of umbilical cord blood CD34+ cells were identified indicating different lineage commitment. The majority of CD34+ cells expressed both CD38 and HLA-DR (91.74 +/- 3.76%), while those lacking CD38 were 3.43 +/- 2.12% (CD38-DR+) and 1.81 +/- 1.54% (CD38-DR-). These data were compared to the expression of lineage commitment markers on purified CD34+ cells from 5 mobilized peripheral blood samples. The percentage of peripheral blood CD34+CD38-DR+) and CD34+CD38-DR- cells was significantly lower than umbilical cord blood, 0.24 +/- 0.18% and 0.04 +/- 0.03% respectively. The knowledge and standardized of umbilical cord blood CD34+ cells phenotype is critical since umbilical cord blood volume is limited. The homogeneity of CD34+ subpopulation phenotype suggests that monitoring of lineage differentiation antigens may not be relevant for clinical use of umbilical cord blood samples. However, the observed higher percentage of pluripotent CD34+38- stem cells in umbilical cord blood compared to peripheral blood, that might explain the successful clinical use of umbilical cord blood even when low number of cells are used, candidates these antigens as the predictive parameter for clinical use of umbilical cord blood samples.

In a small group of subjects we had identified persistent expansions (range 6-72%) of CD4(+)CD8(+) double-positive (DP) peripheral blood (PB) cells which express the CD8 alpha/alpha homodimer. Here, DP cells present in a larger cohort were further investigated and found by FACS analysis to express a single or a dominant TCRBV family. In these subjects, with a mean age of about 64 years, expansions of CD4(+) cells with the same TCRBV family specificity as in the respective DP cells also were consistently detected. TCR heterogeneity of the dominant TCRBV family was specifically evaluated: The amplified CDR3 region was cloned and found to consist of one single or two largely dominant sequence patterns. Furthermore, cloning of the CDR3 region from FACS-sorted DP, CD4(+), or CD8(+) cells indicates that both DP and CD4(+), but not CD8(+) cells, isolated from the same individual possess a striking identity of the CDR3 regions. As indicated by FACS analysis, the clonally expanded cells occur in the CD4(+)CD28(-) cells. Taken together, these results suggest that expanded CD4(+)CD28(-) cells might also acquire CD8 alpha/alpha expression and become DP and imply that CD4 clonality is a more frequent phenomenon than previously suspected. In conclusion, the persistent expansions described in this report represent a novel group of age-related benign clonal expansions of still undefined significance of a rare CD28(-) T cell subset., (Copyright 1998 Academic Press.)

Bone marrow processing requires a first step of filtration to remove small clots, bone fragments, fat cells and fibrin followed by centrifugation to separate mononuclear cells (MNC). These procedures cause a significant loss of cells potentially including hematopoietic stem cells (HSC). We therefore analyzed the cell recovery and phenotype of various fractions (whole marrow; filtered marrow; MNC collected after centrifugation; bone marrow fragments trapped by filtration) of bone marrow harvests (BMH) from patients with different hematological malignancies undergoing autologous bone marrow transplantation. Analysis of 25 BMH showed that the mean percentage of WBC and MNC recovered after filtration was respectively 92.28 +/- 7.42% and 92.3 +/- 9.05% of the original BMH while after centrifugation the percentage was 20.23 +/- 6.47% and 75.7 +/- 12.81%. The percentage of cells present in the tissue fragments trapped in the filters obtained from five BMH was only 3.93 +/- 1.25% (WBC) and 5.65 +/- 2.2% (MNC) of those originally present in the harvest. Phenotypic analysis performed on the same samples showed that there is no selective loss of MNC or CD34+ cells in the filtration process. Our data indicate that processing of BMH, in particular filtration of tissue fragments, does not affect the recovery of HSC.

The AA have conducted a controlled trial to determine the efficacy of two verbal techniques for muscular relaxation on 53 patients with fibromyalgia. The subjects were assigned at random to a autogenous training group (27 patients) or a analogic Erickson's techniques group (26 patients). The autogenous training showed the presence of various limits: (1) application limits (in which notable difficulties had to be faced to train the patients with fibromyalgia to practice the Autogenous training due to the revelation of "intrusive thoughts" or "abreactions", or because of the incapacity of the patients to practice the exercises at home without hearing the instructions of a therapist); (2) limits of efficacy (the state of optimum training needed many therapeutic sittings in order to be achieved and the improvements regarded nighttime sleep and morning rigidity, however, these improvements were less than those obtained with the analogic Erickson's techniques). The Erickson's techniques have showed, instead, many advantages: numerous patients continued the treatment until it was finished; only a small number of therapeutic sittings were necessary. There was an improvement of all the parameters examined, superior compared to the results obtained in the group of patients treated with autogenous training.

A group of 18 individuals is described that manifest persistent (follow up between 4 and 57 months) expansions (ranging from 10 to 70%) of CD4+ CD8+ peripheral T cells. In nine individuals there was no apparent underlying disease whereas the remaining displayed a wide range of unrelated diseases. Analysis of the cell surface immunophenotype showed that all individuals express high densities of CD2, CD3, CD5, and TCR alpha/beta on their CD4+ CD8+ subset. On the contrary, these cells did not express CD25, CD38, CD71, HLA-DR, and the beta chain of the interleukin-2 receptor (p75) but expressed high density of CD29 and low density or absence of CD7. CD8 was "dim" in most individuals and consisted only of the CD8 alpha chain isoform. These individuals could be further divided into two subgroups based on the following parameters: in eleven cases CD4+ CD8+ cells had an LGL morphology and expressed the CD11b, CD56 and CD57 NK-associated antigens; in addition, a high percentage of CD4+ CD8- cells from the same individuals also expressed NK-associated antigens on their cell surface (subgroup A). The CD4+ CD8+ cells of the remaining individuals had small lymphocyte morphology, expressed little or no CD11b and CD56 and their CD4+ CD8- cells did not express NK-associated antigens at all (subgroup B). Finally, CD8 was "bright" on the CD4+ CD8+ cells of three individuals and in these cells also the CD8 beta chain isoform was present (subgroup C). Southern blot hybridization of genomic DNA with a T-cell receptor beta probe revealed that of the sixteen individuals examined four had a monoclonal, seven an oligoclonal, and five a polyclonal molecular configuration. The present data indicate that persistent CD4+ CD8+ expansions represent a novel heterogeneous subset of T cells.

To investigate the role of p55 and p75 chains of interleukin-2 receptor (IL-2R) on the activation of granular lymphocytes (GL) in patients with lymphoproliferative disease of granular lymphocytes (LDGL), the cells obtained from 11 LDGL patients (belonging to the CD3+ group) were studied for (a) the surface expression and (b) mRNA transcripts of the p55 and p75 IL-2R after activation with anti-CD3 monoclonal antibody (mAb) or interleukin-2 (IL-2). The effects of mAbs specifically blocking the p55 and p75 IL-2R on the generation of proliferative and cytotoxic functions were studied following anti-CD3 mAb stimulation. A significant difference was observed in the expression of p55 and p75 antigens on LDGL cells under resting conditions: a low number of p55 IL-2R+ (mean 1.2 +/- 0.4%) and high values of p75 IL-2R+ cells (54.9 +/- 7.4%). Accordingly, a barely detectable message for the p55 IL-2R and a strong signal for the p75 IL-2R mRNA were demonstrated. Following activation with anti-CD3 or IL-2, different patterns of IL-2R expression were observed. Anti-CD3 mAb induced an increase in the expression of the p55 IL-2R both at the mRNA and antigen level, whereas the p75 values remained consistently raised. In contrast, IL-2 induced the expression of p55 IL-2R mRNA associated with only a slight expression of this antigen. This finding was associated with a decrease in the cell expression of the p75 IL-2R, whereas the amount of p75 mRNA was unchanged. Both anti-CD3 mAb and IL-2 induced cell proliferation and cytotoxicity against the K-562 target cells. Anti-p55 IL-2R mAb did not affect the cytotoxic activity mediated by anti-CD3, but it markedly inhibited cell proliferation. Anti-p75 mAb did not inhibit either lytic function or cell proliferation mediated by anti-CD3 mAb, suggesting that only the high affinity IL-2R (p55 plus p75) is involved in anti-CD3 mediated cell activation in LDGL patients. This mechanism is different from that responsible for the IL-2 activation of CD3+ GL in LDGL patients, which is achieved through the p75 IL-2R alone. These results provide new insights into the pathophysiology of proliferating GL in LDGL patients and may also contribute to further characterization of the normal CD3+ GL population.

To clarify the mechanisms accounting for the hairy cell proliferation, in five patients with hairy cell leukemia (HCL), we evaluated the ability of neoplastic cells to proliferate in vitro in response to tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha), B-cell growth factor (BCGF), and interleukin 4 (IL-4). In addition, supernatants recovered from cultures of unstimulated hairy cells were tested for the capability to induce the proliferation of allogeneic hairy cells. We demonstrated that TNF-alpha and BCGF were able to induce the in vitro growth of hairy cells (stimulation index (SI) ranging, at different concentrations, from 1.6 to 10.7 and from 1.6 to 25.1 for TNF-alpha and BCGF, respectively). IL-4 did not show any proliferative effect on hairy cells. When unstimulated hairy cell supernatants were tested for the proliferative activity on allogeneic hairy cells, we demonstrated a low proliferative effect that was not inhibited by an anti-TNF-alpha antibody. Our findings demonstrate that unstimulated hairy cells proliferate in vitro in response to TNF-alpha and BCGF, thus suggesting that these cytokines could be involved in an autocrine model of cell proliferation.

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis (HP) is a lung disorder characterized by an exaggerated accumulation of CD8+ T lymphocytes in the pulmonary parenchyma. To investigate the mechanisms accounting for the T cell alveolitis taking place in the lung of HP patients and their pattern of growth, cells recovered from the bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) of seven patients were evaluated for: 1) the expression of activation markers, including IL-2R (p55 and p75 subunits), HLA-DR and VLA-1 Ag; 2) the ability of IL-2 and IL-4 to induce in vitro proliferation; 3) the capability to synthesize and release IL-2 by determining the levels of IL-2 in BAL cell-free supernatants and by evaluating the presence of mRNA transcripts for IL-2; and 4) the molecular configuration of the beta- and gamma-genes of the TCR. This study demonstrates that a high number of BAL lymphocytes recovered from the lungs of HP patients express activation markers including the p75 chain of IL-2R, VLA-1, and HLA-DR Ag. These cells express the CD3+,CD8+,CD16-,CD56+ phenotype and proliferate in vitro in the presence of IL-2 but do not release this cytokine. Furthermore, IL-2 transcripts could not be detected in BAL resting T lymphocytes. No proliferation was observed in the presence of IL-4. The analysis of the configuration of the TCR beta- and gamma-genes showed a polyclonal pattern, with the exception of one case in which extra bands were observed following digestion with BamHI and EcoRI restriction enzymes. Taken together, our data suggest that the IL-2 system may play a central role in the mechanisms accounting for lymphocytic alveolitis in HP patients. Although the pattern of growth is usually polyclonal, such polyclonal recruitment seems to be biased toward cells that have rearranged and possibly expressed particular V beta or V gamma genes, thus leading to the hypothesis that the events that take place in the lung of these patients may occasionally elicit an oligoclonal expansion of the cells proliferating in lung parenchyma.

To characterize the cytotoxic events taking place in the lung of patients with HIV-1 infection, we studied the cells recovered from the bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) of nine patients with AIDS, seven patients with AIDS-related complex, and two patients with lymphadenopathy. Phenotypic analysis was coupled to a series of functional evaluations of nonspecific cytotoxic abilities performed on lung effectors, including their property to bind K-562 targets, to release natural killer cytotoxic factor (NKCF), and to become cytotoxic following in vitro activation with rIL-2. Our results demonstrated that lung cells bearing the NK-related CD16, CD56, and CD57 antigens were quantitatively increased, irrespective of the disease stage. The majority of the cells also coexpressed the CD3 molecule and the alpha/beta T cell receptor (TCR), notably the phenotype characterizing MHC-unrestricted cytotoxic T cells. From a functional point of view, a severe impairment of the spontaneous cytotoxic ability was demonstrated in most patients. Evaluation at the single cell level showed a normal percentage of the effector/target conjugates formed by HIV-1 lymphocytes. The release of NKCF was undetectable in patients with AIDS even following lectin stimulation, whereas BAL cells from patients with earlier infection produced and/or could be triggered to release discrete amounts of NKCF by incubation with PHA. Studies designed to activate lung cytotoxic cells with rIL-2 showed that in most patients the stimulation of effector cells with rIL-2 enhanced the spontaneous killing and elicited a lymphokine-activated killer (LAK) phenomenon.(ABSTRACT TRUNCATED AT 250 WORDS)

The distinctive biology of renal cell carcinoma and its low response to conventional therapies have prompted researchers in this field to search for other therapeutic strategies. In this paper we describe the current concepts regarding the biology of this neoplasia and new therapeutic perspectives for this disorder, with particular interest in the use of biological response modifiers, including alpha-interferon (alpha-IFN). In view of the evidence of spontaneous regressions of metastases observed after nephrectomy, a possible role of the immune system has been hypothesized in modulating the natural course of renal cell carcinoma. In this context, several groups have focused their attention on the immunotherapeutic approach to this disease. Major biological characteristics of alpha-IFN are reported here, with particular attention paid to its immunomodulatory properties. As a matter of fact, significant results have been obtained by using this molecule, either alone or in association with chemotherapeutic agents (vinblastine). In this paper we focus on the efficacy of these therapeutic approaches by reporting the data obtained from the major clinical trials in which alpha-IFN has been used, including a personal series of cases.

In this study we addressed the question of whether lymphokine-activated killer (LAK) cells, besides killing neoplastic cells, may exert a certain degree of lysis on the normal counterpart; in particular we took into consideration the toxicity against pulmonary alveolar macrophages (PAM). We demonstrated that human LAK cells generated in vitro following incubation of peripheral blood mononuclear cells with recombinant interleukin 2 for 4 days were able to lyse normal PAM in a 4-h 51Cr release assay. Similarly, PAM recovered from patients suffering from nonneoplastic interstitial lung disorders, i.e., sarcoidosis and hypersensitivity pneumonitis, were shown to be susceptible to the cytotoxic function provided by LAK cells. Both autologous and allogeneic PAM were lysed by LAK cells, thus suggesting that the phenomenon we observed does not require a major histocompatibility complex restriction. Preincubation of PAM under study with gamma-interferon did not affect their susceptibility to the lysis mediated by LAK cells. Furthermore, cold target inhibition assay demonstrated that normal PAM could efficiently compete with both NK-sensitive and NK-resistant target lines for the binding sites on LAK cells, thus indicating that the putative receptor(s), or at least the mechanism of target recognition, is shared by PAM and these different target cell lines. The evidence herein provided that LAK cells are cytotoxic to normal, nontransformed PAM points out that the pathogenetic mechanisms involving this self-addressed lytic activity could account for some adverse reactions related to LAK/interleukin 2 immunotherapy.

Current concepts on the application of bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) for the investigation of tumor markers and antitumor activities exerted by effector cells in the lung parenchyma are summarized. The evaluation of BAL cellular and humoral constituents might provide new insights into the pathogenic mechanisms taking place in lung cancer.

In this study we investigated the serum levels of a released soluble form of the interleukin-2 receptor (sIL-2R) in 42 patients with rheumatoid arthritis and in 12 cases of systemic lupus erythematosus. Data were evaluated in relationship to the clinical phase and compared with those observed in normal controls (N = 56) and in osteoarthritis (N = 7). Increased levels were observed in both rheumatoid arthritis (mean +/- SE, 604 +/- 49 U/ml) and systemic lupus erythematosus (1438 +/- 481 U/ml). These values were significantly higher than in control (256 +/- 15 U/ml; P less than 0.001) and in osteoarthritis (298 +/- 33 U/ml; P less than 0.001) groups. In addition, the highest values were associated with the active phases of both rheumatoid arthritis (active vs inactive, 771 +/- 78 vs 451 +/- 39 U/ml; P less than 0.001) and systemic lupus erythematosus (active vs inactive, 2108 +/- 489 vs 499 +/- 75 U/ml; P less than 0.001). Our findings suggest that the detection of sIL-2R in rheumatoid arthritis and in systemic lupus erythematosus may represent a good marker of disease activity, which indirectly indicates the ongoing activation and/or proliferation of immunoreactive cells which are involved in the pathogenetic events of these autoimmune conditions.