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Sodium fluorescein (fluorescein) crosses a disrupted blood-brain barrier similarly to gadolinium contrast in contrast-enhancing cerebral tumors. When exposed to light with 560 nm wavelength during surgery, fluorescein emits a yellow-green fluorescent light that can be visualized through an operating microscope equipped with an appropriate emission filter. The distribution of the fluorescence correlates with the contrast on a gadolinium contrast-enhanced MRI.The objective of this single-center retrospective study was to investigate if the use of fluorescein would increase the extent of resection and to examine if fluorescein guided resection influences postoperative neurological status.During the study period from August 2014 to August 2018, 117 patients were operated for cerebral metastases. Of these, 56 operations were guided by fluorescein and 61 by traditional white light. All patients had an early postoperative MRI within 72 h after surgery.The use of fluorescein increased the extent of resection in patients with cerebral metastases. The use of fluorescein was not associated with increased postoperative sequelae or neurological damage regardless of underlying primary cancer.Fluorescein is a helpful supplement in the neurosurgical treatment of cerebral metastases.

Checkpoint inhibitors (CPI), such as anti-programmed death-1 and anti-cytotoxic T-lymphocyte antigen-4antibodies cause serious, rarely fatal immune-related adverse events (irAE) potentially in all organ systems. Neurological immune-related adverse events occur in 1%-5% of patients on CPI therapy and may present with dramatic clinical symptoms of the sensory organs. After exclusion of other causes, a high-dose treatment with corticosteroids is crucial for clinical outcome with lower risk of sequelae. We present a severe case of CPI-related ongoing and most likely irreversible bilateral vestibular affection. A 59-year-old male melanoma patient with brain metastasis undergoing immunotherapy with anti-cytotoxic T-lymphocyte antigen-4 and anti-programmed death-1 antibodies developed severe debilitating rotatory vertigo. Bilateral vestibulopathy was diagnosed as a result of the CPI therapy after a thorough analysis including magnetic resonance imaging, laboratory tests of blood and cerebrospinal fluid as well as neurological and otorhinolaryngology examinations. The vertigo improved slightly during a 10-day course of steroid therapy and intensive balance training but did not resolve completely.

Infections are often caused by pathobionts, endogenous bacteria that belong to the microbiota. Trauma and surgical intervention can allow bacteria to overcome host defences, ultimately leading to sepsis if left untreated. One of the main defence strategies of the immune system is the production of highly specific antibodies. In the present proof-of-concept study, plasma antibodies against 9 major pathogens were measured in sepsis patients, as an example of severe systemic infections. The binding of plasma antibodies to bacterial extracellular proteins was quantified using a semi-automated immunoblot assay. Comparison of the pathogen-specific antibody levels before and after infection showed an increase in plasma IgG in 20 out of 37 tested patients. This host-directed approach extended the results of pathogen-oriented microbiological and PCR diagnostics: a specific antibody response to additional bacteria was frequently observed, indicating unrecognised poly-microbial invasion. This might explain some cases of failed, seemingly targeted antibiotic treatment.

AIMS. A randomized control trial (RCT) of diabetes self-management education (DSME), undertaken by a community-based participatory research (CBPR) partnership between the University of Arkansas for Medical Sciences (UAMS) and the Marshallese community in Arkansas. The RCT examined the effect of the hours of intervention exposure, with the hypothesis that increased exposure is one reason the Adapted-Family DSME was found to be more effective than the Standard DSME. METHODS. 221 Marshallese with type 2 diabetes were randomized to an Adapted-Family DSME group (in-home setting) (n=110) or a Standard DMSE group (community setting) (n=111). The Adapted-Family DSME included 10 hours of education that covered the core self-care elements recommended by the American Diabetes Association (ADA) and American Association of Diabetes Educators’ (AADE) recommendations. The Standard DSME included 10 hours of intervention with all ADA and AADE core elements. RESULTS. The number of hours of intervention exposure in the Adapted-Family DSME arm (Mean=8.0; Median=10.0) was significantly higher than the number of hours of intervention received in the Standard DSME arm (Mean=1.5; Median=0.0). As hypothesized, higher exposure was associated with a significant reduction in HbA(1c) in a model including only study arm and exposure (P=0.01), and in a model including study arm, exposure, and all demographic variables (P=0.046). CONCLUSIONS. This finding is consistent with previous reviews that showed increased exposure to DSME produced improved glycaemic control and 10 hours or more of DSME produces clinically meaningful reductions in HbA(1c).

The primary objective of this retrospective study was to evaluate the diagnostic yield and morbidity/mortality associated with frameless stereotactic neuronavigated intracranial biopsies with and without the use of fluorescein.Patient cases from January 2007 to December 2017 were identified using the ICD-10 procedure code AAG00. Relevant clinical data, including histological diagnosis, were collected retrospectively from the electronic patient charts and independently reviewed by two authors.111 biopsies obtained from 103 patients were identified. Of these, 109 biopsies yielded a diagnosis and resulted in a diagnostic yield of 98.2%. Fluorescein was used in 13 biopsies (11.7%). Twelve patients (10.8%) experienced postoperative complications, and the mortality attributed to the surgery was 1.8%. In 12.6% of cases, the biopsies showed inflammation or nonspecific reactive changes. No statistically significant differences were observed in diagnostic yield or number and severity of complications according to whether intraoperative histological examination was used or not.Although direct comparisons between studies are difficult due to lack of consensus about the definition of diagnostic yield, the present study reports a similar diagnostic yield to other studies. Intraoperative histopathological analysis appeared to give little extra benefit.

Objectives: Marshallese are a Pacific Islander community that experience a disproportionate rate of type 2 diabetes. The purpose of this study is to evaluate the preliminary effectiveness and feasibility of an Adapted-Family Diabetes Self-Management Education (DSME) intervention among Marshallese adults diagnosed with type 2 diabetes and their family members when delivered in a clinical setting. Methods: Marshallese patients (primary participants) with type 2 diabetes (n = 10) and their family members (n = 10) enrolled in a pilot study deigned to evaluate an Adapted-Family DSME curriculum conducted by community health workers and a certified diabetes educator in a clinical setting. Primary and family participants’ health information and biometric data (HbA1c, blood pressure, cholesterol, and body mass index) were collected at preintervention and 12 weeks postintervention. Results: All 10 primary participants and 8 of the family members received all 10 hours of the education intervention. Nine of the 10 primary participants and 8 of the 10 family members completed the pre- and postintervention data collection events. Primary participants demonstrated a mean decrease in HbA1c of 0.7%, from pre- to postintervention, as well as improved blood pressure and cholesterol. Family members demonstrated minor improvements in HbA1c and blood pressure. Conclusions: Results suggest preliminary effectiveness and feasibility of the Adapted-Family DSME in a clinic setting and will inform implementation of a fully powered study.

This multicenter, open-label, dose-escalating, phase I study evaluated the safety, tolerability, pharmacokinetics and preliminary tumor response of a nanoparticulate formulation of paclitaxel (Nanotax®) administered intraperitoneally for multiple treatment cycles in patients with solid tumors predominantly confined to the peritoneal cavity for whom no other curative systemic therapy treatment options were available.Twenty-one patients with peritoneal malignancies received Nanotax® in a modified dose-escalation approach utilizing an accelerated titration method. All patients enrolled had previously received chemotherapeutics and undergone surgical procedures, including 33 % with optimal debulking. Six doses (50-275 mg/m(2)) of Cremophor-free Nanotax® were administered intraperitoneally for one to six cycles (every 28 days).Intraperitoneal (IP) administration of Nanotax® did not lead to increases in toxicity over that typically associated with intravenous (IV) paclitaxel. No patient reported ≥Grade 2 neutropenia and/or ≥Grade 3 neurologic toxicities. Grade 3 thrombocytopenia unlikely related to study medication occurred in one patient. The peritoneal concentration-time profile of paclitaxel rose during the 2 days after dosing to peritoneal fluid concentrations 450-2900 times greater than peak plasma drug concentrations and remained elevated through the entire dose cycle. Best response assessments were made in 16/21 patients: Four patients were assessed as stable or had no response and twelve patients had increasing disease. Five of 21 patients with advanced cancers survived longer than 400 days after initiation of Nanotax® IP treatment.Compared to IV paclitaxel administration, Cremophor-free IP administration of Nanotax® provides higher and prolonged peritoneal paclitaxel levels with minimal systemic exposure and reduced toxicity.

Many U.S. medical schools have accreditation requirements for interprofessional education and training in cultural competency, yet few programs have developed programs to meet both of these requirements simultaneously. Furthermore, most training programs to address these requirements are broad in nature and do not focus on addressing health disparities. The lack of integration may reduce the students' ability to apply the knowledge learned. Innovative programs that combine these two learning objectives and focus on disenfranchised communities are needed to train the next generation of health professionals.A unique interprofessional education program was developed at the University of Arkansas for Medical Sciences Northwest. The program includes experiential learning, cultural exposure, and competence-building activities for interprofessional teams of medicine, nursing, and pharmacy students. The activities include (a) educational seminars, (b) clinical experiential learning in a student-led clinic, and (c) community-based service-learning through health assessments and survey research events.The program focuses on interprofessional collaboration to address the health disparities experienced by the Marshallese community in northwest Arkansas. The Marshallese are Pacific Islanders who suffer from significant health disparities related to chronic and infectious diseases.Comparison tests revealed statistically significant changes in participants' retrospectively reported pre/posttest scores for Subscales 1 and 2 of the Readiness for Interpersonal Learning Scale and for the Caffrey Cultural Competence in Healthcare Scale. However, no significant change was found for Subscale 3 of the Readiness for Interpersonal Learning Scale. Qualitative findings demonstrated a change in students' knowledge, attitudes, and behavior toward working with other professions and the underserved population.The program had to be flexible enough to meet the educational requirements and class schedules of the different health professions' education programs. The target community spoke limited English, so providing interpretation services using bilingual Marshallese community health workers was integral to the program's success.

A fundamental principle of neuroscience is that each species' and individual's sensory systems are tailored to meet the demands placed upon them by their environments and experiences. What has driven the upper limit of the human frequency range of hearing? The traditional view is that sensitivity to the highest frequencies (i.e., beyond 8 kHz) facilitates localization of sounds in the environment. However, this has yet to be demonstrated for naturally occurring non-speech sounds. An alternative view is that, for social species such as humans, the biological relevance of conspecific vocalizations has driven the development and retention of auditory system features. Here, we provide evidence for the latter theory. We evaluated the contribution of extended high-frequency (EHF) hearing to common ecological speech perception tasks. We found that restricting access to EHFs reduced listeners' discrimination of talker head orientation by approximately 34%. Furthermore, access to EHFs significantly improved speech recognition under listening conditions in which the target talker's head was facing the listener while co-located background talkers faced away from the listener. Our findings raise the possibility that sensitivity to the highest audio frequencies fosters communication and socialization of the human species. These findings suggest that loss of sensitivity to the highest frequencies may lead to deficits in speech perception. Such EHF hearing loss typically goes undiagnosed, but is widespread among the middle-aged population.

Summary Background Treatment guidelines for aphasia recommend intensive speech and language therapy for chronic (≥6 months) aphasia after stroke, but large-scale, class 1 randomised controlled trials on treatment effectiveness are scarce. We aimed to examine whether 3 weeks of intensive speech and language therapy under routine clinical conditions improved verbal communication in daily-life situations in people with chronic aphasia after stroke. Methods In this multicentre, parallel group, superiority, open-label, blinded-endpoint, randomised controlled trial, patients aged 70 years or younger with aphasia after stroke lasting for 6 months or more were recruited from 19 inpatient or outpatient rehabilitation centres in Germany. An external biostatistician used a computer-generated permuted block randomisation method, stratified by treatment centre, to randomly assign participants to either 3 weeks or more of intensive speech and language therapy (≥10 h per week) or 3 weeks deferral of intensive speech and language therapy. The primary endpoint was between-group difference in the change in verbal communication effectiveness in everyday life scenarios (Amsterdam–Nijmegen Everyday Language Test A-scale) from baseline to immediately after 3 weeks of treatment or treatment deferral. All analyses were done using the modified intention-to-treat population (those who received 1 day or more of intensive treatment or treatment deferral). This study is registered with ClinicalTrials.gov, number NCT01540383. Findings We randomly assigned 158 patients between April 1, 2012, and May 31, 2014. The modified intention-to-treat population comprised 156 patients (78 per group). Verbal communication was significantly improved from baseline to after intensive speech and language treatment (mean difference 2·61 points [SD 4·94]; 95% CI 1·49 to 3·72), but not from baseline to after treatment deferral (−0·03 points [4·04]; −0·94 to 0·88; between-group difference Cohen's d 0·58; p=0·0004). Eight patients had adverse events during therapy or treatment deferral (one car accident [in the control group], two common cold [one patient per group], three gastrointestinal or cardiac symptoms [all intervention group], two recurrent stroke [one in intervention group before initiation of treatment, and one before group assignment had occurred]); all were unrelated to study participation. Interpretation 3 weeks of intensive speech and language therapy significantly enhanced verbal communication in people aged 70 years or younger with chronic aphasia after stroke, providing an effective evidence-based treatment approach in this population. Future studies should examine the minimum treatment intensity required for meaningful treatment effects, and determine whether treatment effects cumulate over repeated intervention periods. Funding German Federal Ministry of Education and Research and the German Society for Aphasia Research and Treatment.

Introduction: Sorafenib is a multikinase inhibitor affecting pathways involved in tumor progression and angiogenesis. We conducted a phase II trial of sorafenib in platinum-treated patients with extensive stage small cell lung cancer to determine the tumor response rate, toxicity, and overall survival. Methods: Patients with histologically confirmed, measurable disease, Zubrod performance status 0 to 1, and no more than 1 prior platinum-based treatment were eligible. Patients were stratified by platinum-sensitivity status: sensitive (progression >90 days after platinum) or refractory (progression during or ≤90 days after platinum). Patients were treated with sorafenib 400 mg orally twice a day continuously on a 28-day cycle. Results: Of 89 patients registered, 82 were evaluable for toxicity assessment, and 83 were evaluable for response. There were four partial responses seen among the 38 patients in the platinum-sensitive stratum, for an estimated response rate of 11% (95% confidence interval: 3–25%), and one partial response among the 45 patients in the platinum-refractory stratum, for an estimated response rate of 2% (95% confidence interval: 0–12%). The median overall survival estimates were 6.7 months (95% confidence interval: 6.1–9.1 months) for the platinum-sensitive stratum and 5.3 months (95% confidence interval: 3.3–7.5 months) in the platinum-refractory stratum. Nineteen patients discontinued treatment because of adverse events or side effects from therapy. Conclusions: Based on the lack of disease control seen in our trial, further investigation of single-agent sorafenib in the small cell lung cancer population is not recommended. Combination trials of sorafenib and chemotherapy are ongoing.

Eye lens radiation exposure during radiologically-guided endoscopic procedures may result in radiation-induced cataracts; therefore, we investigated the ocular radiation exposure during ureteroscopy on a phantom model.Using an Alderson phantom model and eye lens dosimeters, we measured the ocular radiation exposure depending on the number of X-ray images and on the duration of fluoroscopic imaging. The measurements were done with and without using a face protection shield.We could demonstrate that a significant ocular radiation exposure can occur, depending on the number of X-ray images and on the duration time of fluoroscopy. Eye lens doses up to 0.025 mSv were recorded even using modern digital X-ray systems. Using face protection shields this ocular radiation exposure can be reduced to a minimum.The International Commission on Radiological Protection (ICRP) recommendations of a mean eye lens dosage of 20 mSv/year may be exceeded during repeated ureteroscopy by a high volume surgeon. Using a face protection shield, the eye lens dose during ureteroscopy could be reduced to a minimum in a phantom model. Further investigations will show whether these results can be transferred to real life ureteroscopic procedures.

Oxidative stress associated with increased presence of neutrophils is an important feature of inflammatory airways diseases like asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. We studied the in vitro effect of piclamilast (RP73401), a selective phosphodiesterase (PDE)-4 inhibitor, compared to theophylline and prednisolone, on respiratory burst of sputum cells from mild asthmatics and COPD patients. Sputum cells were harvested from mild asthmatics and stable COPD patients and treated with piclamilast, theophylline or prednisolone. Respiratory burst was assessed by luminol-dependent chemoluminescence after stimulation with 10 microM n-formyl-met-leu-phe (FMLP). Piclamilast inhibited FMLP-induced respiratory burst of sputum cells in a concentration-dependent manner (asthma: EC50 approximately 100 nM, max. inhibition: 97.5+/-5% at 100 microM; COPD: EC50 approximately 1 microM, max. inhibition: 70.6+/-4.5% at 100 microM), whereas maximal inhibition observed with theophylline (asthma: max. inhib. 27+/-15%; COPD: 6+/-2%, both p0.05 vs. piclamilast) and prednisolone (asthma: 16+/-6%; COPD: 7.8+/-6.2%, both p0.05 vs. piclamilast) was weaker. Inhibition by piclamilast was largely reversed through pretreatment of cells with the adenylcyclase inhibitor SQ22536. We concluded that piclamilast, a selective PDE-4 inhibitor, attenuates the respiratory burst of sputum cells from mild asthmatics and COPD patients in vitro. These data underline the potential of PDE-4 inhibition as a novel therapeutic approach to inflammatory airway diseases like asthma or COPD.

Purpose: Before now oral vinorelbine has not yet been tested in a cohort of elderly, advanced non-small cell lung cancer patients, even though the intravenous form of this drug provides a reasonable therapeutic option for this group. This trial was conducted to determine the tumor response rate and toxicity profile of oral vinorelbine in advanced non-small cell lung cancer patients ≥65 years of age. Patients and methods: Fifty-eight evaluable patients ≥65 years of age with advanced non-small cell lung cancer were enrolled. Median age was 73 years (range: 65–87). The Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance score was 0, 1, or 2 in 29, 59, and 12% of patients, respectively. All patients had adequate organ function. Oral vinorelbine 60mg/m 2 per week was prescribed weekly as first-line therapy. Results: Two patients manifested a confirmed tumor response, yielding a response rate of 3.4% (95% confidence interval (CI): 0.4, 11.9%). There were no complete responses. Median progression-free survival was 3.5 months (95% CI: 2.2, 5.4 months), and median overall survival was 7.5 months (95% CI: 5.0, 12 months). There were five deaths, one of which might have been treatment-related, and there were 10 grade 4 events. Conclusions: Oral vinorelbine, as prescribed in this trial, provides minimal activity in the treatment of advanced non-small cell lung cancer in patients ≥65 years of age.

Introduction Repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS) is used to increase regional excitability to improve motor function in combination with training after neurological diseases or events such as stroke. We investigated whether a daily application of intermittent theta burst stimulation (iTBS; a short-duration rTMS that increases regional excitability) improves the training effect compared with sham stimulation in association with a four-day hand training program using a mirror (mirror training, MT). The right dorsal premotor cortex (dPMCright) was chosen as the target region for iTBS because this region has recently been emphasized as a node within a network related to MT. Methods Healthy subjects were randomized into the iTBS group or sham group (control group CG). In the iTBS group, iTBS was applied daily over dPMCright, which was functionally determined in an initial fMRI session prior to starting MT. MT involved 20 min of hand training daily in a mirror over four days. The hand tests, the intracortical excitability and fMRI were evaluated prior to and at the end of MT. Results The results of the hand training tests of the iTBS group were surprisingly significantly poorer compared with those from the CG group. Both groups showed a different course of excitability in both M1 and a different course of fMRI activation within the supplementary motor area and M1left. Conclusion We suggest the inter-regional functional balance was affected by daily iTBS over dPMCright. Maybe an inter-regional connectivity within a network is differentially balanced. An excitability increase within an inhibitory-balanced network would therefore disturb the underlying network.

Topical retinoids are highly effective treatments for acne vulgaris. The various formulations and concentrations available allow physicians to tailor therapies to individual patient's needs and minimize the cutaneous irritation that is often observed with the use of these drugs.To compare the efficacy and safety of tretinoin gel microsphere 0.1% with adapalene gel 0.1% in the treatment of acne vulgaris.A 12-week double-blind study was conducted, and patients were evaluated at baseline and at weeks 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 10, and 12.Although the two drugs displayed similar efficacy in the resolution of acne lesions at 12 weeks, a significantly greater reduction in the number of comedones was seen at week 4 among patients treated with tretinoin gel microsphere (p = 0.047). Patients receiving tretinoin gel microsphere had an increased incidence of dryness (weeks 8 and 10) and peeling (weeks 3, 6, 8, and 10) compared with those patients treated with adapalene gel, but the two groups were comparable with respect to erythema, burning/stinging, and itching.Both drugs have similar efficacy in the resolution of acne lesions but tretinoin gel microsphere may result in a faster onset of action in the reduction of comedones compared to adapalene.

The overwhelming postsplenectomy infection syndrome (OPSI) is a fulminant sepsis that is mainly caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae and is characterized by a particular high mortality. Patients whose spleen was removed due to a hematological disease are at special risk. Even after the recommended immunization against Streptococcus pneumoniae 20-30 % of these patients do not develop an adequate level of antibody response. Therefore, this particular group of patients must be trained how to behave in case of fever and need to obtain immediate specific sepsis therapy with antibiotic prophylaxis.

Primary cardiac angiosarcoma is extremely rare, but it is the most common primary malignant cardiac tumor. We herein present the case of a 51-year-old man who presented with symptoms of acute right heart failure, secondary to pericardial tamponade. Pericardiocentesis showed bloody fluid with negative pathology. Repeat 2-D echocardiography and a trans-esophageal echocardiogram showed a right atrial mass. The patient underwent surgery and adjuvant chemotherapy, but died seven months after the diagnosis. Despite being rare, cardiac angiosarcoma should be included in the differential diagnosis of bloody pericardial effusions, even with negative early investigations. The prognosis of the disease is usually poor. Treatment is mainly surgical resection if the cancer is localized, and can include neadjuvant and adjuvant chemotherapy, radiation treatment, and immunotherapy.

Fractional photothermolysis (FPT; Fraxel SR laser) is a 1550 nm non-ablative erbium laser device with a variety of clinical applications. FPT has been used to treat photodamage, photoaging, melasma, actinic keratoses and acne scarring. We present the case of a 49-year-old woman with a depressed 0.7 x 0.5 cm alar scar resulting from Mohs micrographic surgery for basal cell carcinoma with secondary intention healing. She was treated with FPT initially eight weeks post-operatively. FPT was performed a total of five times at four-week intervals. At the completion of FPT, the scar was nearly imperceptible and has remained so eighteen months later. To the authors' knowledge, treatment of facial scars resulting from Mohs micrographic surgery for cutaneous malignancy has not previously been reported.

In a 3-year prospective study, the prevalence of albuminuria and its relationship to macrovascular disease, pre-existing vascular risk factors and mortality rate were studied in a random cohort of 290 patients with Type 2 diabetes mellitus in general practice. Newly occurring micro- or macroalbuminuria was associated with significantly (p < 0.05) higher systolic blood pressure: median (IQ range) 157 (140–170) vs 150 (130–160) mmHg, in addition to higher serum triglycerides: median (IQ range) 2.71 (1.84–4.25) vs 1.84 (1.35–3.14) mmol I−1, and C-peptide levels: median (IQ range) 1.30 (0.98–2.16) vs 1.10 (0.82–1.58) nmol I−1, at 3-year follow-up. Patients with macroalbuminuria at final examination had significantly higher systolic and diastolic blood pressure, serum triglyceride and β2-microglobulin levels, decreased HDL-cholesterol, and a significantly higher prevalence of carotid artery stenoses and peripheral vascular disease. Patients dying from vascular causes showed significantly higher urinary albumin levels at entrance as compared to the surviving patients: median (IQ range): 42.2 (11–249.7) vs 10.4 (4.6–28.0) mg I−1, p < 0.008, and overall mortality rate was significantly linked with the presence of macroalbuminuria (26% vs 5% in normoalbuminuric patients). A comparison between the results of the initial and the final examination indicated an overall worsening of renal variables (albuminuria: median (IQ range): female 9.5 (4.5–21) vs 13.4 (5.1–39.7) mg I−1, (p < 0.05); male 13.8 (4.7–34.1) vs 32.6 (8.1–78.7) (p < 0.001), despite a significant improvement in metabolic variables. At the same time, a significant increase of the prevalence of peripheral vascular disease (female 41 vs 59%, p

The aim of this study was to analyze methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus strains isolated during a 1-year period by means of pulsed-field gel electrophoresis, resistance phenotyping and determination of biochemical features. Eight different resistance phenotypes with the predominant resistance type Pen Oxa Cip (penicillin, oxacillin, ciprofloxacin) were observed. None of the strains tested exhibited decreased susceptibility to vancomycin, but two strains were resistant to mupirocin. Genetic relatedness of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus isolates could be shown for two outbreaks, one of which was caused by a clone with an epidemic potential concerning duration of colonization/infection of patients and dissemination of the strains in the hospital.

The thrombopoietin receptor gene (MPL) is expressed in megakaryocytes and exhibits the gain of function point mutation W515K/L in approximately 5% of patients with primary myelofibrosis/idiopathic myelofibrosis (PMF) representing one subtype of the chronic myeloproliferative disorders (myeloproliferative neoplasm). A series of primary and secondary acute myeloid leukaemias (AML) with megakaryoblastic phenotype and myelofibrosis unrelated to PMF (n=12) was analysed for the MPL(W515K/L) mutation by pyrosequencing. In three cases (25%), MPL(W515L) was found and in two of these a combination with trisomy 21 or the Philadelphia chromosome occurred. None of the secondary AML cases evolving from pre-existing PMF showed MPL(W515K/L) (n=4). We conclude that MPL(W515L) occurs in a considerable proportion of acute megakaryoblastic leukaemias with myelofibrosis unrelated to PMF.

A 19-year-old female patient presented to the emergency department 6 hr after an episode of headache followed by brief loss of consciousness. The episode was associated with jerking of extremities and rapid recovery was reported without confusion or focal neurologic deficit. She reported having tension-like headaches for several months. She denied any fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, or head trauma. Physical examination revealed an obese, pale patient with flat affect. Her temperature was 99°F, pulse: 90 beats per minute, and blood pressure 110/75 mmHg without evidence of orthostasis. Neurological examination was pertinent for right Babinski sign. Her initial complete blood count revealed hemoglobin: 6.0 g/dL, hematocrit: 18%, MCV: 91.8 fl, platelet count: 116 x 10 3 per microliter, and leukocyte count: 6,700 per microliter.

Alzheimer's disease (AD) is the most common progressive neurodegenerative disease. Today, AD affects millions of people worldwide and the number of AD cases will increase with increased life expectancy. The AD brain is marked by severe neurodegeneration like the loss of synapses and neurons, atrophy and depletion of neurotransmitter systems in the hippocampus and cerebral cortex. Recent findings suggest that these pathological changes are causally induced by mitochondrial dysfunction, increased oxidative stress and elevated apoptosis. Until now, AD cannot be diagnosed by a valid clinical method or a biomarker before the disease has progressed so far that dementia is present. Furthermore, no valid method is available to determine which patient with mild cognitive impairment (MCI) will progress to AD. Therefore, a correct diagnosis in the early stage of AD is not only of importance considering that early drug treatment is more effective but also that the psychological burden of the patients and relatives could be decreased. In this review, we discuss the potential role of elevated apoptosis, increased oxidative stress and mitochondrial dysfunction as biomarker for AD in a peripheral cell model, the lymphocytes.

Purpose According to the S-3 guidelines for the diagnosis and treatment of breast cancer, only palpation and mammography are mandatory follow-up examinations. Ultrasonography is only mentioned as an optional technique. Aiming to elucidate the diagnostic yield for detecting recurrent disease after breast-preserving therapy (BPT) and radiation treatment, we analysed the sensitivity of palpation, mammography, ultrasonography, and combinations of these methods. Materials and methods Over a period of 12 years, 27 suspicious lesions in patients status post BPT and radiation therapy were biopsied (histologic results: 16 benign lesions: 59.3 %, 11 malignant lesions: 40.7 %). Prior to biopsy, the benign or malignant character of each lesion was predicted by palpation, mammography and ultrasonography (BIRADS). Sensitivity, specifity, positive predictive value (ppv), negative predictive value (npv), and efficiency were calculated from a contingency table. Results For lesions status post BPT and radiation treatment, palpation had a sensitivity of 72.7 % and was 25 % specific. For mammography, the respective values were 36.4 % and 87.5 %, and for ultrasonography 90.9 % and 68.8 %. Palpation and mammography combined were 81.8 % sensitive and had a specificity of 6.2 %. The computed sensitivity for the 3 methods applied together was 100 %. Adding ultrasonography to palpation and mammography therefore increases sensitivity by 18.2 %. Conclusion For diagnosing recurrent disease in patients status post BPT and radiation therapy, ultrasonography is superior to palpation and/or mammography and should become an obligatory follow-up tool. The role of mammographic follow-up appears overrated and the role of ultrasonographic assessment underrated. The S-3 guidelines will need to be changed accordingly.

Placental site trophoblastic tumor (PSTT) is a rare, mostly benign tumor, which in 10-15% of cases shows a malignant behavior. The case of a 35 year old woman with pulmonary metastasis of a PSTT is reported. This finding was incidental in an atypical lung-resection due to pneumothorax. The literature on this rare tumor entity is reviewed especially in terms of differential diagnosis, biological behavior and association with a pneumothorax.

This prospective double-blind study was designed to assess (i) if primary breast screening by ultrasonography is capable of detecting breast cancer independent of tissue density and (ii) if the rate of unnecessary biopsies remains acceptable when diagnostics are based on ultrasonography.Bilateral breast ultrasonography was performed in 448 asymptomatic women as the initial diagnostic method. Sonograms were interpreted using a set of standardized diagnostic criteria. Subsequently, mammograms were obtained. The radiologists reading the mammograms were blinded to the sonographic results.Overall, 3 non-palpable breast cancers were detected by ultrasound and mammography. All 3 ultrasonographically detected breast cancers were smaller than 1 cm (0.7, 0.7, 0.6 cm). All 3 carcinomas were correctly detected by both methods. For ultrasonography, the false positive rate was 1.1% (n=5) and for mammography 0.6% (n=3). When both methods were combined, the rate of unnecessary open biopsies was 1.6% (n=7). The ratio of benign to malignant lesions was 3.7/1.Without prior mammography, primary high-resolution breast ultrasonography is capable of detecting non-palpable breast carcinomas in asymptomatic women at an early stage. The rate of unnecessary open biopsies is low and the ratio of benign to malignant biopsies acceptable.

Inhibitors of human methionine aminopeptidase type 2 (hMetAP2) are of interest as potential treatments for cancer. A new class of small molecule reversible inhibitors of hMetAP2 was discovered and optimized, the 4-aryl-1,2,3-triazoles. Compound 24, a potent inhibitor of cobalt-activated hMetAP2, also inhibits human and mouse endothelial cell growth. Using a mouse matrigel model, this reversible hMetAP2 inhibitor was also shown to inhibit angiogenesis in vivo.

Annular pancreas is a rare congenital malformation of the pancreas. In about 50 % of the cases the malformation is asymptomatic until the second to fifth decade. We report on a 75-year-old male patient with an extremely rare localization of annular pancreas - namely at the pars horicontalis duodeni - who presented with recurrent vomiting and loss of weight. An end-to-side Roux-Y duodenojejunostomy was performed. After that procedure we discharged the patient on day eleven after surgery in good physical health condition. In a patient presenting signs of duodenal obstruction annular pancreas should be taken into account as a possibility.

We describe the third case world-wide of a chorangiocarcinoma, a tumour with an abnormal trophoblast proliferation in combination with a hypervascular chorangiosis of the villous stroma. The lesion was an incidential finding by a healthy 31-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 1 when the pregnancy was terminated at 34 weeks gestation because of fetal distress and intrauterine growth restriction. Hormonal levels were within the normal range. Mother and infant had an uneventful postpartum course. Immunohistochemical studies of the abnormal trophoblasts demonstrated strong immunoreactivity for HCG and in 80% for Ki 67. The semiquantitative expression of angiogenic growth factors (VEGF, bFGF, Ang-1 und Ang-2, PDGF) in the tumour trophoblasts was similar to that seen in the normal villi. The pathogenesis of this tumour with a villous vascular response is curious and unclear. Possibilities include the occurrence of a variant of a chorion carcinoma, the occurrence of a new tumour entity or of two separate lesions, a chorangioma and incidential chorion carcinoma, present together as a "collision" tumour. Another possibility is a composition tumour or a reactive lesion of trophoblasts and the villous vascular tree.

Insertion of an intrauterine device (IUD) immediately after an abortion has several potential advantages. The woman is known not to be pregnant, a major concern for clinicians. For example, many clinicians refuse to insert an IUD in a woman who is not menstruating [Stanback 1997]. After induced abortion, a woman's motivation to use contraception may be high. Among women who have limited access to a clinician, abortion care may provide a unique opportunity to address a woman's need for contraception [Mahomed 1997; McLaurin 1993; Wolf 1994]. A copper IUD confers nearly the same contraceptive efficacy as does tubal sterilization [Peterson 1996], yet it is simpler, less expensive, and promptly reversible. In addition, insertion of an IUD immediately after abortion may avoid discomfort related to insertion, and any bleeding from the insertion will be disguised by the expected bleeding after abortion. However, insertion of an IUD immediately after a pregnancy ends carries potential risks as well. For example, the risk of perforation may be increased due to softening of the myometrium. One IUD manufacturer in the United States warns that "The PROGESTASERT(R) system is not intended for immediate postabortion or postpartum insertion It should not be inserted until involution of the uterus is complete. The incidence of perforation and expulsion is greater if involution is not completed." [ALZA 1998] The package labeling for the Copper 7 stated that it should not be inserted after an abortion until involution was complete "in order to avoid a higher incidence of perforation or expulsion."[Gillett 1980] Another potential concern is infection. Insertion of an IUD after a clandestine or unsafe abortion may increase the risk of upper genital tract infection compared with interval insertion (remote from pregnancy).To assess the safety and efficacy of IUD insertion immediately after spontaneous or induced abortion.We used Medline, Popline, and EMBASE computer searches, supplemented by review articles and contacts with investigators.We sought all randomized controlled trials that had at least one treatment arm that involved IUD insertion immediately after an induced abortion or after curettage for spontaneous abortion. We identified 12 trials which described random assignment but excluded three from this review. Two of these revealed unethical research conduct, and one used alternate assignment to treatments.We evaluated the methodological quality of each report and abstracted information onto a data collection form. We focused on gross discontinuation rates (single-decrement life table analysis) for accidental pregnancy, perforation, expulsion, and pelvic inflammatory disease. We entered the data into RevMan 3.1 for analysis of Peto odds ratios.In large multicenter trials, the TCu 220C device proved superior to either the Lippes Loop D or the Copper 7 IUDs for immediate post-abortal insertion. The Peto OR for discontinuation for pregnancy was 0.4 (95% CI 0.2-0.7) compared with the Lippes Loop D and 0.5 (95% CI 0.3-0.8) compared with the Copper 7. Expulsions were also significantly less common with the TCu 220C than with the other two IUDs. In single-center trials, the Nova T IUD had a signicantly higher discontinuation rate for pregnancy than did the Multiload 250 (OR 4.5; 95% CI 1.0-19.8), while the Nova T had a significantly lower discontinuation rate for pregnancy than did the TCu 200 (OR 0.3; 95% CI 0.1-0.9). Only one trial compared immediate vs. delayed insertion. In this trial, the performance of the Copper 7 IUD inserted immediately after abortion was inferior to that after interval insertion (remote from pregnancy), although the differences were not statistically significant. Addition of copper sleeves to a Lippes Loop D improved its performance, but addition of a topical hydrogel to a Spring Coil did not offer benefit. Overall, rates of perforation and pelvic inflammatory disease were low.Insertion of an IUD immediately after abortion is both safe and practical. This was true for both induced and reported "spontaneous" abortions, many of which may have been induced under clandestine circumstances. IUD expulsion rates were higher after second-trimester abortions than after earlier abortions, so delaying insertion may be advisable after later abortions. Although Copper 7 devices inserted unrelated to pregnancy may perform better than those inserted after abortion, many women who express interest in intrauterine contraception do not return for the scheduled insertion. These women may remain unprotected against unintended pregnancy. However, evidence is inadequate to compare the safety and efficacy of IUD insertion immediately after abortion vs. insertion some weeks later.

Side effects caused by oral contraceptives discourage compliance with and continuation of oral contraceptives. Three approaches have been used to decrease these adverse effects: reduction of steroid dose, development of new steroids, and new formulas and schedules of administration. The third strategy led to the biphasic oral contraceptive pill.To compare biphasic oral contraceptives with monophasic oral contraceptives in terms of efficacy, cycle control, and discontinuation due to side effects. Our a priori hypotheses were: (a) biphasic oral contraceptives are less effective in preventing pregnancy than are monophasic oral contraceptives, and (b) biphasic oral contraceptives cause more side effects, give poorer cycle control, and have lower continuation rates.We searched computerized databases MEDLINE, EMBASE, Popline and the Cochrane Controlled Trial Register. Additionally we searched the reference lists of all potentially relevant articles and book chapters. We also contacted the authors of relevant studies and pharmaceutical companies in Europe and the U.S.We included randomized controlled trials comparing any biphasic oral contraceptive with any monophasic oral contraceptive when used to prevent pregnancy.We examined the studies found during the various literature searches for possible inclusion and assessed their methodological quality using the Cochrane guidelines. We contacted the authors of all included studies and of possibly randomized studies for supplemental information about the study methods and outcomes. We entered the data in RevMan 3.1, imported the data into RevMan 4.1, and calculated Peto odds ratios for the incidence of intermenstrual bleeding, absence of withdrawal bleeding, and study discontinuation due to intermenstrual bleeding.Only one trial of limited quality compared a biphasic and monophasic preparation. Percival-Smith et al. (1990) examined 533 user cycles of a biphasic pill (norethindrone 500 mcg/ethinyl estradiol 35 mcg for ten days, followed by norethindrone 1000 mcg/ethinyl estradiol 35 mcg for eleven days; Ortho 10/11) and 481 user cycles of a monophasic contraceptive pill (norethindrone acetate 1500 mcg/ethinyl estradiol 30 mcg daily; Loestrin). The study found no significant differences in intermenstrual bleeding, amenorrhea and study discontinuation due to intermenstrual bleeding between the biphasic and monophasic oral contraceptive pills.Conclusions are limited by the identification of only one trial, the methodological shortcomings of that trial, and the absence of data on accidental pregnancies. However, the trial found no important differences in bleeding patterns between the biphasic and monophasic preparations studied. Since no clear rationale exists for biphasic pills and since extensive evidence is available for monophasic pills, the latter are preferred.

To assess the efficacy and feasibility of IUD insertion immediately after expulsion of the placenta. Our a priori hypothesis was that this practice is safe but associated with higher expulsion rates than interval IUD insertion.We used MEDLINE, Popline, EMBASE, and Cochrane Controlled Trials Register computer searches, supplemented by review articles and contact with investigators.We sought all randomized controlled trials that had at least one treatment arm that involved immediate post-partum (within ten minutes of placental expulsion) insertion of an IUD. Comparisons could include different IUDs, different insertion techniques, immediate vs. delayed post-partum insertion, or immediate vs. interval insertion (unrelated to pregnancy). Studies could include either vaginal or cesarean deliveries.We evaluated the methodological quality of each report and sought to identify duplicate reporting of data from multicenter trials. We abstracted data onto data collection forms. Principal outcome measures included pregnancy, expulsion, and continuation rates. Because the trials did not have uniform interventions, we were unable to aggregate them in a meta-analysis.We found no randomized controlled trials that directly compared immediate post-partum insertion with either delayed post-partum or interval insertion. Modifications of existing devices, such as adding absorbable sutures or additional appendages, did not appear beneficial. Most studies showed no important differences between insertions done by hand or by instruments. Lippes Loops and Progestasert devices did not perform as well as did copper devices.Immediate post-partum insertion of IUDs appeared safe and effective, though direct comparisons with other insertion times were lacking. Advantages of immediate post-partum insertion include high motivation, assurance that the woman is not pregnant, and convenience. However, expulsion rates appear to be higher than with interval insertion. The popularity of immediate post-partum IUD insertion in countries as diverse as China, Mexico, and Egypt support the feasibility of this approach. Early follow-up may be important in identifying spontaneous IUD expulsions.

We conducted upper intestinoscopies in 124 intensive care patients, six of whom had oesophageal candidosis. Of these, two also had Candida plaque in the stomach. The patients at the intensive care unit (ICU) had a mean Apache-II score of 26.7; whereas the score was 29.5 in patients with Candida oesophagitis. A significant increase of Candida antibodies was found in 59 of 124 patients (47.6%), including all patients with oesophageal candidosis. Presumably, mycotic infections of other sites were present. The severity by which mucous membranes were affected correlated well with microscopically evident invasiveness.

This study describes screening and identifying amphetamines, methamphetamines, and their derivatives in urine using immunochemical (Triage, FPIA) and chromatographic techniques (REMEDi HS). Amphetamines, methamphetamines, MDMA (3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine), MDA (3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine), MDE (3,4-methylenedioxyethyl-amphetainine), MBDB (N-methyl-1-(3,4-methylenedioxyphenyl)-2-butanamine), BDB (3,4-(methylenedioxyphenyl)-2-butanamine), PMA (4-methoxyamphetamine), DOM (2,5-dimethyloxy-4-methylamphetamine), DOB (4-bromo-2,5-dimethyloxyamphetamine), amphetaminil, pholedrine, fenfluramine, and amfepramone were subjected to a comparative study. For this, the substances were analyzed to determine their specific threshold concentration for a positive detection in the Triage test and their limit of detection and positive threshold concentration for the FPIA test and the results compared. Furthermore, the capabilities of a more detailed analysis with the REMEDi system were studied. This HPLC system was able to produce information on the single drugs and main metabolites found in the sample with the danger of false-positive or false-negative screening results greatly minimized.

To assess the safety and efficacy of IUD insertion immediately after spontaneous or induced abortion.We used Medline, Popline, and EMBASE computer searches, supplemented by review articles and contacts with investigators.We sought all randomized controlled trials that had at least one treatment arm that involved IUD insertion immediately after an induced abortion or after curettage for spontaneous abortion. We identified 12 trials which described random assignment but excluded three from this review. Two of these revealed unethical research conduct, and one used alternate assignment to treatments.We evaluated the methodological quality of each report and abstracted information onto a data collection form. We focused on gross discontinuation rates (single-decrement life table analysis) for accidental pregnancy, perforation, expulsion, and pelvic inflammatory disease. We entered the data into RevMan 3.1 for analysis of Peto odds ratios.In large multicenter trials, the TCu 220C device proved superior to either the Lippes Loop D or the Copper 7 IUDs for immediate post-abortal insertion. The Peto OR for discontinuation for pregnancy was 0.4 (95% CI 0.2-0.7) compared with the Lippes Loop D and 0.5 (95% CI 0.3-0.8) compared with the Copper 7. Expulsions were also significantly less common with the TCu 220C than with the other two IUDs. In single-center trials, the Nova T IUD had a signicantly higher discontinuation rate for pregnancy than did the Multiload 250 (OR 4.5; 95% CI 1.0-19.8), while the Nova T had a significantly lower discontinuation rate for pregnancy than did the TCu 200 (OR 0.3; 95% CI 0.1-0.9). Only one trial compared immediate vs. delayed insertion. In this trial, the performance of the Copper 7 IUD inserted immediately after abortion was inferior to that after interval insertion (remote from pregnancy), although the differences were not statistically significant. Addition of copper sleeves to a Lippes Loop D improved its performance, but addition of a topical hydrogel to a Spring Coil did not offer benefit. Overall, rates of perforation and pelvic inflammatory disease were low.Insertion of an IUD immediately after abortion is both safe and practical. This was true for both induced and reported "spontaneous" abortions, many of which may have been induced under clandestine circumstances. IUD expulsion rates were higher after second-trimester abortions than after earlier abortions, so delaying insertion may be advisable after later abortions. Although Copper 7 devices inserted unrelated to pregnancy may perform better than those inserted after abortion, many women who express interest in intrauterine contraception do not return for the scheduled insertion. These women may remain unprotected against unintended pregnancy. However, evidence is inadequate to compare the safety and efficacy of IUD insertion immediately after abortion vs. insertion some weeks later.

Intoxicated states can be induced not only by the typical narcotic drugs, but also by other psychotropic substances, such as the thorn-apple and angel's trumpet. In recent times there has been an increase in the reported number of cases of such intoxications. Clinical symptoms, toxicological analysis and possible forms of treatment are discussed.

A patient with cervical myelopathy caused by marked degenerative alterations of the cervical spinal column at the level of cervical vertebrae 3/4 and relative spinal canal stenosis in the area of cervical vertebrae 5-7 was treated in the department of neurosurgery because of progressive myatrophy and paresis of muscles innervated from cervical nerves 5-7. The operation was performed with vertebrectomy of cervical vertebra 6, implantation of a Harms titanium cage with autograft and a plate and spongy bone screw fixation system. There exists an unusual--and not often publicized--complication during this surgical procedure in the area of the cervical spine, namely penetrating injury of the vertebral artery caused by the treatment with a plate and spongy bone screw fixation system. We describe such an injury of the left vertebral artery. The vertebral artery was intraoperatively embolized using mechanical embolization coils.

Nitric oxide (NO) is an important intracellular and extracellular signal substance. Nitrite is one product of the oxidative metabolism of NO. The purpose of this study was to establish a simple method of determining nitrite (NO2-) to provide a means of estimating the endogenous formation of NO or NO2-. A flow injection analysis (FIA) based on the Griess reaction was developed for this purpose. Using a standard additive method, it is possible to eliminate matrix effects such as those that can occur in samples containing protein. This measuring method is suitable for measurements in effluates or protein-rich cellular supernatants. The sensitivity of the method is 2 nmol/L for samples in aqueous phases and 8 nmol/L for protein-containing phases. The two-point discrimination is 2 nmol/L. A linear correlation between nitrite and signal level can be demonstrated over a range of 0.002-5 micromol/L. Reproducibility, including sample preparation and analysis, can be specified with a coefficient of variation (C.V.) of 6.7%. Day-to-day variability for identical samples 0.8% (C.V.). This study presents examples of the application of this method (measurements in blood samples and in isolated perfused hearts) and compares them to established methods of measuring NO and NO2. We found the FIA method to be equally sensitive as NO measurement by means of oxyhemoglobin assay. The FIA method is seven times more sensitive than HPLC methods, and its design is significantly simpler. Compared to the traditional Griess method, its sensitivity is higher by a factor of 500. With its high sensitivity, high reproducibility, and its unsurpassed low susceptibility to interference, this method of analysis provides a means of reliably determining nitrite concentration as a marker of NO formation in various matrices. Therefore, it can be a valuable instrument in experimental and clinical studies to determine the physiologic and pathophysiologic relevance of NO.

Phosducin (Phd) regulates the function of G proteins by its ability to tightly bind Gbetagamma subunits. Because the internalization of opioid receptors as well as the activity of adenylyl cyclase (AC) activity depends on G proteins, we tested Phd on these parameters. NG 108-15 hybrid cells stably expressing the phosphoprotein were challenged with [D-penicillamine2,D-penicillamine5]enkephalin to inhibit cAMP generation, demonstrating an increased efficacy of the opioid on AC. Studying the binding of [35S]guanosine-5'-O-(gamma-thio)-triphosphate to membranes from Phd overexpressing cells, we found that [D-penicillamine2, D-penicillamine5 ]enkephalin failed, in the presence of Phd (0.1 nM), to elevate incorporation of the nucleotide. Phd also strongly inhibited opioid-stimulated GTPase activity. NG 108-15 cells were also employed to investigate the effect of Phd on opioid receptor internalization. Control cells and cells overexpressing Phd were transiently transfected to express mu-opioid receptors fused to green fluorescence protein. In controls and in Phd overexpressing cells confocal microscopy identified fluorescence associated with the membrane. Time-lapse series microscopy of living control cells challenged with etorphine (1 microM) revealed receptor internalization within 30 min. In contrast, Phd overexpressing cells largely failed to respond to the opioid. Thus, in Phd overexpressing cells, opioids exhibit an increased efficacy despite the inhibitory action of the phosphoprotein on opioid-stimulated incorporation of [35S]guanosine-5'-O-(gamma-thio)-triphosphate. We suggest that inhibition of GTPase stabilizes the opioid-induced G protein Gi-GTP complex, which is believed to enhance AC inhibition. Finally, scavenging of Gbetagamma by Phd attenuates internalization of opioid receptors, which may contribute to the efficacy of opioids.

The alpha 2 adrenergic agonists are used to treat a variety of psychiatric disorders and their usage has been increasing. This article presents the rationale and neurochemical basis for treatment of psychiatric disorders with alpha 2 agents, reviews studies examining clinical efficacy, and develops guidelines for usage. Case vignettes are presented to illustrate how the alpha 2 agents can successfully be used in practice.

Sex workers and their clients as core groups of high frequency transmitters play a dominant role in the transmission of HIV and other sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). In Surabaya, Indonesia, little is known about the prevalence of STDs in various sex establishments. We conducted an STD prevalence survey of 1873 female sex workers in Surabaya, Indonesia. We did not find any sex workers with HIV infection. Prevalence rates of other STDs (chlamydia, gonorrhoea, serological test for syphilis positive, and/or trichomoniasis) in female sex workers were 48% in brothels (n = 696), 42% on the streets (n = 192), 16% in massage parlours (n = 344), 25% in barber shops (n = 150), 17% at call-girl houses (n = 73), and 10% in nightclubs (n = 418). Sex workers from the brothels had the highest prevalence rates of gonorrhoea (24%) and trichomoniasis (8%), while sex workers from the streets and the barber shop had the highest rates of serological test for syphilis (STS) positive (30%) and chlamydia (18%). STD rates decreased with an increase in age (except for STS positive), an increase in education, a decrease in the number of sex partners, and condom use in the previous week. Condom use in the previous week was universally low among sex workers, especially among sex workers from the brothels (14%). Sex workers from the brothels had STD rates about 4 times higher than sex workers from the nightclubs (adjusted odds ratio of 4.4). Although the HIV seroprevalence rate is currently low, widespread prostitution and high rates of STDs in sex workers warrant programmes to avert a potential explosion of HIV transmission. Because sex workers from the brothels in Surabaya have high rates of STDs and low use of condoms but good cooperation with local authorities, STD preventive measures should focus on this group.A sexually transmitted disease (STD) prevalence survey of 1873 female sex workers recruited from six types of sex establishments in Surabaya, Indonesia, in 1992-93 failed to reveal any cases of HIV. The prevalence rates of the other STDs included in the study (chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis, and trichomoniasis), by setting, were as follows: brothels (n = 696), 48%; streets (n = 192), 42%; massage parlors (n = 344), 16%; barber shops (n = 150), 25%; call-girl houses (n = 73), 17%; and nightclubs (n = 418), 10%. Sex workers based in brothels and on the streets had the lowest socioeconomic status, while nightclub and call-girl house workers had the highest status. Brothel workers had the highest rates of gonorrhea (24%) and trichomoniasis (8%), while street and barber-shop based workers had the highest prevalences of syphilis (30%) and chlamydia (18%). Condom use in the week preceding the survey ranged from 14% among brothel workers to 67% among call girls. STD rates decreased with increases in age and education and with any condom use. The high rates of STDs documented in this survey, especially among sex workers in brothels, indicate the need for programs aimed at preventing an HIV epidemic. For example, the medical monitoring available from a private physician to workers in most massage parlors, barber shops, call-girl houses, and nightclubs should be made available to brothel-based prostitutes. Also urged are free distribution of condoms to sex establishments, sanctions against establishments where condoms are not used consistently, and a media campaign to encourage men to use condoms with sex workers.

We report about our experiences obtained with the Vitek system (bioMerieux, Nürtingen) for identification of 1160 clinical Candida isolates. The Vitek system correctly identified 1005 (86.6%) Candida isolates (probabilityor = 85%): 776 (66.9%) strains were identified after 24 h of incubation, 229 (19.7%) required 48 h of incubation. In 4.4% (n = 51) we found results with a lower probability (85%). After 24 h of incubation 38 (14.6%) of the 260 C. tropicalis isolates tested were misidentified as C. parapsilosis; we obtained the correct results after 48 h of incubation. 104 (9%) isolates were wrongly identified after 48 h of incubation. The majority of these strains (n = 82) were biochemically minimally reactive Candida species. Overall, the Yeast Biochemical Card system provides a reliable method for the rapid, automated identification of medically important Candida species.

The investigation of susceptibility of Candida species to fluconazole was performed in microdilution to a supplemented HR-medium. The sufficient reproducibility of the test was verified using special control isolates and isolates of patients. The excellent applicability of the method in routine diagnostics was evaluated by in vitro testing of susceptibility of 279 Candida isolates from patients being colonised or suffering from endomycoses. The Candida species showed different susceptibility against fluconazole: 96% of the C. albicans isolates were sensitive, 55% of the C. glabrata isolates had a reduced sensitivity, and 26% were resistant against fluconazole (MIC25 micrograms/ml). C. krusei isolates were highly resistant (9 of 11 strains).