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BackgroundWithin eight weeks of primary Clostridioides difficile infection (CDI), as many as 30% of patients develop recurrent disease with the associated risks of multiple relapses, morbidity, and economic burden. There are no validated biomarkers predictive of recurrence during primary infection. This study demonstrates the potential of a simple test for identifying hospitalized CDI patients at low risk for disease recurrence.MethodsForty-six hospitalized CDI patients were enrolled at Emory University Hospitals. Serum and MENSA samples prepared during weeks 1, 2, and 4 following symptom-onset were measured for antibodies specific for ten C. difficile antigens.ResultsAmong the 46 C. difficile-infected patients, nine (19.5%) experienced recurrence within eight weeks of primary infection. Among the 37 non-recurrent patients, 23 had anti-C. difficile MENSA antibodies specific for any of the three toxin antigens: TcdB-CROP, TcdBvir-CROP, and/or CDTb. Positive MENSA responses occurred within the first week post-symptom onset, including six patients who never seroconverted. A similar trend was observed in serum responses, but they peaked later and identified fewer patients (19/37). In contrast, none of the patients who subsequently recurred after hospitalization produced antibodies specific for the three C. difficile toxin antigens. IgA antibodies for the toxin antigens demonstrated the greatest predictive power for protection from recurrence.DiscussionThe development of IgG and/or IgA antibodies for three C. difficile toxins in serum and/or MENSA has prognostic potential. These immunoassays measure nascent immune responses that reduce the likelihood of recurrence. Early identification of patients at-risk for recurrence can reduce costs and morbidity.

DNase1L3 deficiency is an inborn error of immunity that causes monogenic systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) in humans. Here, we identified that one third of patients with sporadic SLE have antibodies to DNase1L3. Like DNase1L3 deficiency, we found that patients with anti-DNase1L3 antibodies have features associated with immune pathways activated by immunogenic self-DNA, including elevated antibodies to dsDNA and prominent expression of the interferon and myeloid/neutrophil signatures. Interestingly, 40-80% of anti-DNase1L3 antibodies in SLE serum contain the 9G4 idiotype, which is encoded by the autoreactive heavy-chain gene segment VH4-34. Sequence and functional analysis of four anti-DNase1L3 monoclonal antibodies generated from SLE patients experiencing disease-associated flares showed that these antibodies were derived from self-reactive 9G4+ switched memory B cells. These antibodies are highly enriched in somatic hypermutations, indicating that they originated from antigen-experienced cells, and have neutralizing activity against DNase1L3. Together, the data demonstrate that autoantibodies to DNase1L3 phenocopy pathogenic mechanisms associated with DNase1L3 deficiency. Moreover, the finding that autoreactive B cells bearing the 9G4 idiotype produce dominant serum autoantibodies, including antibodies to DNase1L3, underscores VH4-34+ B cells as sensible therapeutic targets for specific depletion of pathogenic B cells in SLE.

Background Cryptococcus neoformans is a major cause of morbidity and mortality among human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected persons worldwide, and there are scarce recent data on cryptococcal antigen (CrAg) positivity in the United States We sought to determine the frequency of cryptococcal disease and compare the performance of a CrAg lateral flow assay (LFA) versus latex agglutination (LA) test. Methods All patients from Grady Health System in Atlanta who had a serum or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) sample sent for CrAg testing as part of clinical care from November 2017 to July 2018 were included. Percentage positivity and test agreement were calculated. Results Among 467 patients, 557 diagnostic tests were performed; 413 on serum and 144 on CSF. The mean age was 44 years, and most were male (69%) and had HIV (79%). Twenty-four (6.4%, 95% confidence interval [CI] = 4.1–9.4) patients were serum CrAg positive, and 8 (5.8%, 95% CI = 2.6–11.2) individuals tested positive for CSF CrAg. Although overall agreement between the LA and LFA was substantial to high for CSF (κ = 0.71, 95% CI = 0.51–0.91) and serum (κ = 0.93, 95% CI = 0.86–1.00), respectively, there were important discrepancies. Five patients had false-positive CSF LA tests that affected clinical care, and 4 patients had discordant serum tests. Conclusions We found a moderately high proportion of cryptococcal disease and important discrepancies between the LA test and LFA. Clinical implications of these findings include accurate detection of serum CrAg and averting unnecessary treatment of meningitis with costly medications associated with high rates of adverse events., We sought to determine the proportion of cryptococcal antigen (CrAg) positivity and compare a CrAg lateral flow assay (LFA) versus latex agglutination test in Atlanta, GA. CrAg positivity was moderately high, and there were important discrepancies between diagnostic tests.

Background Streptococcus pneumoniae infections cause morbidity and mortality worldwide. A rapid, simple diagnostic method could reduce the time needed to introduce definitive therapy potentially improving patient outcomes. Methods We introduce two new methods for diagnosing S. pneumoniae infections by measuring the presence of newly activated, pathogen-specific, circulating Antibody Secreting Cells (ASC). First, ASC were detected by ELISpot assays that measure cells secreting antibodies specific for signature antigens. Second, the antibodies secreted by isolated ASC were collected in vitro in a novel matrix, MENSA (media enriched with newly synthesized antibodies) and antibodies against S. pneumoniae antigens were measured using Luminex immunoassays. Each assay was evaluated using blood from S. pneumoniae and non-S. pneumoniae-infected adult patients. Results We enrolled 23 patients with culture-confirmed S. pneumoniae infections and 24 controls consisting of 12 non-S. pneumoniae infections, 10 healthy donors and two colonized with S. pneumoniae. By ELISpot assays, twenty-one of 23 infected patients were positive, and all 24 controls were negative. Using MENSA samples, four of five S. pneumoniae-infected patients were positive by Luminex immunoassays while all five non-S. pneumoniae-infected patients were negative. Conclusion Specific antibodies produced by activated ASC may provide a simple diagnostic for ongoing S. pneumoniae infections. This method has the potential to diagnose acute bacterial infections.

BACKGROUNDClostridioides difficile infections (CDI) have been a challenging and increasing serious concern in recent years. While early and accurate diagnosis is crucial, available assays have frustrating limitationsOBJECTIVEDevelop a simple, blood-based immunoassay to accurately diagnose patients suffering from active CDI.MATERIALS AND METHODSUninfected controls (n=95) and CDI patients (n=167) were recruited from Atlanta area hospitals. Blood samples were collected from patients within twelve days of a positive CDI test and processed to yield serum and PBMCs cultured to yield medium enriched for newly synthesized antibodies (MENSA). Multiplex immunoassays measured Ig responses to ten recombinant C. difficile antigens.RESULTSSixty-six percent of CDI patients produced measurable responses to C. difficile antigens in their serum or MENSA within twelve days of a positive CDI test. Fifty-two of the 167 CDI patients (31%) were detectable in both serum and MENSA, but 32/167 (19%) were detectable only in MENSA, and 27/167 (16%) were detectable only in serum.DISCUSSIONWe describe the results of a multiplex immunoassay for the diagnosis of ongoing CDI in hospitalized patients. Our assay resolved patients into four categories: MENSA-positive only, serum-positive only, MENSA- and serum-positive, and MENSA- and serum-negative. The MENSA positive-only patients accounted for 30% and may be attributed to nascent antibody secretion in MENSA prior to seroconversion. Conversely, the serum positive-only subset may have been more advanced in their disease course. Immunocompromise and misdiagnosis may have contributed to the 34% of CDI patients who were not identified using MENSA or serum immunoassays.IMPORTANCEWhile there was considerable overlap between patients identified through MENSA and serum, both methods detected additional, unique patients. The combined use of both MENSA and serum to detect CDI patients resulted in the greatest identification of CDI patients. Together, longitudinal analysis of MENSA and serum will provide a more accurate evaluation of successful host humoral immune responses in CDI patients.

Background Geenius HIV 1/2 Supplemental Assay (Geenius; Bio-Rad Laboratories) is the only Food and Drug Administration-approved HIV-1/HIV-2 antibody differentiation test for the second step in the HIV laboratory testing algorithm. We characterized the occurrence of true HIV-1 and HIV-2 infections as well as false results in 6 US clinical laboratories using Geenius. Methods We examined routine HIV testing outcome data from the time the laboratories began using the algorithm with Geenius until September 30, 2017. We calculated the positive predictive value for Geenius HIV-1 and HIV-2 reactivity separately. Results Of 5,046,684 specimens tested, 41,791 had reactive antigen/antibody test results. Most specimens with reactive antigen/antibody results were HIV-1 antibody-positive established infections (n = 32,421), 1,865 of which also had indeterminate HIV-2 bands present. Ninety-three specimens were HIV-2 antibody positive or untypable for HIV-1/HIV-2 antibody. Acute HIV-1 infections were found in 528 specimens; 881 specimens lacked the nucleic acid test to determine the possibility of acute HIV-1 infection. False-positive antigen/antibody test results were present in 7505 specimens. Few specimens (n = 363) had false-positive antigen/antibody results with indeterminate Geenius and negative HIV-1 nucleic acid test results. The positive predictive values of Geenius reactivity were 99.4% for HIV-1 and 4.3% for HIV-2. Conclusions Routine testing using the laboratory testing algorithm with Geenius resulted in most specimens resolving as HIV negative or HIV-1 positive. The occurrence of indeterminate HIV-2 bands with a Geenius final assay interpretation of HIV-1 positive was more common than true HIV-2 infections. Reporting indeterminate HIV-2 results in this situation may cause confusion with interpreting HIV infection status.

Campylobacteriosis is an infectious gastrointestinal disease caused by Campylobacter spp. In most cases, it is either underdiagnosed or underreported due to poor diagnostics and limited databases. Several DNA-based molecular diagnostic techniques, including 16S ribosomal RNA (rRNA) sequence typing, have been widely used in the species identification of Campylobacter. Nevertheless, these assays are time-consuming and require a high quality of bacterial DNA. Matrix-assisted laser desorption ionization (MALDI) time-of-flight (TOF) MS is an emerging diagnostic technology that can provide the rapid identification of microorganisms by using their intact cells without extraction or purification. In this study, we analyzed 24 American Type Culture Collection reference isolates of 16 Campylobacter spp. and five unknown clinical bacterial isolates for rapid identification utilizing two commercially available MADI-TOF MS platforms, namely the bioMérieux VITEK® MS and Bruker Biotyper systems. In addition, 16S rRNA sequencing was performed to confirm the species-level identification of the unknown clinical isolates. Both MALDI-TOF MS systems identified the isolates of C. jejuni, C. coli, C. lari, and C. fetus. The results of this study suggest that the MALDI-TOF MS technique can be used in the identification of Campylobacter spp. of public health importance.

Background While Cryptococcus neoformans is a major cause of morbidity and mortality among HIV-infected persons worldwide, there is scarce recent data on disease prevalence in the United States, including in Southeastern states, where HIV rates are high. We sought to determine the prevalence of cryptococcal disease and compare the performance of a cryptococcal antigen (CrAg) lateral flow assay (LFA) vs. latex agglutination (LA) test. Methods All patients from Grady Memorial Hospital in Atlanta, Georgia who had a serum or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) sample sent for CrAg LA testing as part of routine management from November 2017 to July 2018 were included. The LFA was performed on all samples by research staff; results were not available to clinicians. Rates of disease and agreement between the LA test and LFA were calculated. Results Among 467 patients, 570 LA tests were performed; 417 on serum and 153 on CSF (87 patients with multiple tests performed). Mean age was 44 years, and most were male (n = 322, 69%). Most patients had HIV (n = 371, 79%); median CD4 count was 73 cells/mm3 and 77% were not receiving ART. Among HIV-infected individuals, testing was performed equally in the inpatient and outpatient setting. Cryptococcal testing was done in 53 persons without apparent risk factors. Thirty-three (7%) patients had a positive serum or CSF test. Five (1%) patients had both a positive serum and CSF LA test and LFA. While the overall agreement between the LA test and LFA was substantial to high for CSF (κ = 0.71) and serum (κ = 0.93), respectively, there were important discrepancies. Four patients with a negative serum LA test had a positive serum LFA. Five patients had false-positive CSF LA tests, determined by negative CSF LFA testing, India ink, and CSF and fungal cultures. All were treated with amphotericin and flucytosine with one patient experiencing a severe anaphylactic reaction to amphotericin. Conclusion We found a moderately high rate of cryptococcal disease and important discrepancies between the LA test and LFA. The LFA appeared to be more sensitive for cryptococcemia and more specific for meningitis. Clinical implications of these findings include earlier detection and treatment of cryptococcemia, and averting unnecessary treatment of meningitis with costly medications associated with high rates of adverse events. Disclosures All authors: No reported disclosures.

The physiochemical stem cell microenvironment regulates the delicate balance between self-renewal and differentiation. The three-dimensional assembly of stem cells facilitates cellular interactions that promote morphogenesis, analogous to the multicellular, heterotypic tissue organization that accompanies embryogenesis. Therefore, expansion and differentiation of stem cells as multicellular aggregates provides a controlled platform for studying the biological and engineering principles underlying spatiotemporal morphogenesis and tissue patterning. Moreover, three-dimensional stem cell cultures are amenable to translational screening applications and therapies, which underscores the broad utility of scalable suspension cultures across laboratory and clinical scales. In this review, we discuss stem cell morphogenesis in the context of fundamental biophysical principles, including the three-dimensional modulation of adhesions, mechanics, and molecular transport and highlight the opportunities to employ stem cell spheroids for tissue modeling, bioprocessing, and regenerative therapies.

This case report discusses a patient with sickle cell disease who presented with fungemia from Pichia anomala (teleomorph: Candida pelliculosa). The organism was identified as P. anomala by MALDI-TOF VITEK mass spectrometry and VITEK 2 yeast identification card. Pichia anomala should be considered in sickle cell patients with recurrent fungemia.

Both male and female rat growth plate chondrocytes express estrogen receptors (ERs); however 17β-estradiol (E2) induces membrane responses leading to activation of phospholipase A2 (PLA2), phospholipase C (PLC), prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) production, protein kinase C (PKC), and ultimately mitogen protein kinase (MAPK) only in female cells. This study investigated if these sex-specific responses are due to differences in the actual ERs or in downstream signaling. Western blots and flow cytometry of costochondral cartilage resting zone chondrocytes (RCs) showed 2–3 times more ERα in plasma membranes (PMs) from female cells than male cells. Tunicamycin blocked E2-dependent ER-translocation to the PM, indicating palmitoylation was required. Co-immunoprecipitation showed E2 induced complex formation between ER isoforms only in female RCs. To examine if the lack of response in PKC and PGE2 in males is due to differences in signaling, we examined involvement of ERs and the role of PLC and PLA2. Selective ERα (propylpyrazole triol, PPT) and ERβ (diarylproprionitrile, DPN) agonists activated PKC in female RCs only. The PLC inhibitor, U73122 blocked E2's effect on PKC and the cytosolic PLA2 inhibitor, AACOCF3 inhibited the effect on PGE2 in female RCs, confirming involvement of PLC and PLA2 in the mechanism. The PLC activator, m-3M3FβS activated PKC and PLAA peptide increased PGE2 levels in male and female RCs, showing that the signaling pathways are present. These data indicate that differences in membrane ER amount, localization, translocation and interaction are responsible for the sexual dimorphic response to E2.

Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR TB), defined by resistance to the 2 most effective first-line drugs, isoniazid and rifampin, is on the rise globally and is associated with significant morbidity and mortality. Despite the increasing availability of novel rapid diagnostic tools for Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Mtb) drug susceptibility testing, the clinical applicability of these methods is unsettled. In this study, the mechanisms of action and resistance of Mtb to isoniazid and rifampin, and the utility, advantages and limitations of the available Mtb drug susceptibility testing tools are reviewed, with particular emphasis on molecular methods with rapid turnaround including line probe assays, molecular beacon-based real-time polymerase chain reaction and pyrosequencing. The authors conclude that neither rapid molecular drug testing nor phenotypic methods are perfect in predicting Mtb drug susceptibility and therefore must be interpreted within the clinical context of each patient.

Harnessing the differentiation of stem cells into bone-forming cells represents an intriguing avenue for the creation of functional skeletal tissues. Therefore, a profound understanding of bone development and morphogenesis sheds light on the regenerative application of stem cells in orthopedics and dentistry. In this concise review, we summarize the studies deciphering the mechanisms that govern osteoblast differentiation in the context of in vitro formation of bone-like nodules, including morphologic and molecular events as well as cellular contributions to mineral nucleation, occurring during osteogenic differentiation of stem cells. This article also highlights the limitations of current translational applications of stem cells and opportunities to use the bone-like nodule model for bone regenerative therapies. Significance Harnessing the differentiation of stem cells into bone-forming cells represents an intriguing avenue for the creation of functional skeletal tissues. Therefore, a profound understanding of bone development and morphogenesis sheds light on the regenerative application of stem cells in orthopedics and dentistry. In this concise review, studies deciphering the mechanisms that govern osteoblast commitment and differentiation are summarized. This article highlights the limitations of current translational applications of stem cells and the opportunities to use the bone-like nodule model for bone regenerative therapies.

This study is a retrospective chart review looking at the clinical characteristics of cryptococcal meningitis with elevated MIC to fluconazole in immunocompromised patients. These patients were more likely to have central nervous system complications without any effect on mortality., Background. Mortality for cryptococcal meningitis remains significant, in spite of available treatment. Resistance to first-line maintenance therapy, particularly fluconazole, has been reported. Methods. A retrospective chart review was performed on immunocompromised patients with cryptococcal meningitis, who had susceptibility testing performed between January 2001 and December 2011, at 3 hospitals in Atlanta, Georgia. Results. A total of 35 immunocompromised patients with cryptococcal meningitis were identified, 13 (37.1%) of whom had an elevated minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) to fluconazole (MIC ≥16 µg/mL). Eighty percent of patients were males with African American predominance, the median age was 37 years, and 80% of the patients were human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive. Subsequent recurrence of cryptococcal meningitis was more likely in HIV patients compared with solid organ transplant patients (P = .0366). Overall, there was a statistically significant increase in an elevated MIC to fluconazole in patients who had a history of prior azole use (odds ratio, 10.12; 95% confidence interval, 2.04–50.16). Patients with an elevated MIC to fluconazole and those with a high cerebrospinal fluid cryptococcal antigen load (≥1:512) were more likely to have central nervous system complications (P = .0358 and P = .023, respectively). Although no association was observed between an elevated MIC to fluconazole and mortality, those who received voriconazole or high-dose fluconazole (≥800 mg) for maintenance therapy were more likely to survive (P = .0288). Conclusions. Additional studies are required to further investigate the morbidity and mortality associated with an elevated MIC to fluconazole in cryptococcal meningitis, to determine when it is appropriate to perform susceptibility testing, and to evaluate its cost effectiveness.

Background The Xpert MTB/RIF (Xpert) assay is a rapid nucleic acid amplification test widely used in settings of high tuberculosis prevalence to detect tuberculosis as well asrpoBmutations associated with rifampin resistance. Data are needed on the diagnostic performance of Xpert in lower-prevalence settings to inform appropriate use for both tuberculosis detection and the need for respiratory isolation. Methods Xpert was compared to 2 sputum samples, each evaluated with acid-fast bacilli (AFB) smear and mycobacterial culture using liquid and solid culture media, from participants with suspected pulmonary tuberculosis from the United States, Brazil, and South Africa. Results Of 992 participants enrolled with evaluable results, 22% had culture-confirmed tuberculosis. In 638 (64%) US participants, 1 Xpert result demonstrated sensitivity of 85.2% (96.7% in participants with AFB smear-positive [AFB(+)] sputum, 59.3% with AFB smear-negative [AFB(-)] sputum), specificity of 99.2%, negative predictive value (NPV) of 97.6%, and positive predictive value of 94.9%. Results did not differ between higher- and low-prevalence settings. A second Xpert assay increased overall sensitivity to 91.1% (100% if AFB(+), 71.4% if AFB(-)), with specificity of 98.9%. In US participants, a single negative Xpert result predicted the absence of AFB(+)/culture-positive tuberculosis with an NPV of 99.7%; NPV of 2 Xpert assays was 100%, suggesting a role in removing patients from airborne infection isolation. Xpert detected tuberculosis DNA and mutations associated with rifampin resistance in 5 of 7 participants with rifampin-resistant, culture-positive tuberculosis. Specificity for rifampin resistance was 99.5% and NPV was 98.9%. Conclusions In the United States, Xpert testing performed comparably to 2 higher-tuberculosis-prevalence settings. These data support the use of Xpert in the initial evaluation of tuberculosis suspects and in algorithms assessing need for respiratory isolation.

Sex steroids are important regulators for longitudinal growth, bone mass accrual, and sexual dimorphism of the skeleton. 17β-Estradiol regulates proliferation and differentiation of female chondrocytes via a membrane-associated signaling pathway in addition to its estrogen receptor (ER) mediated effects. In contrast, testosterone does not elicit a similar membrane response, either in male or female cells. Whereas female rat growth plate chondrocytes convert testosterone to 17β-estradiol, male chondrocytes produce 5α-dihydrotestosterone (DHT). Previously DHT was found to mediate sex-specific effects of testosterone in male cells, but it is not known if a membrane-signaling pathway is involved. In this study, we hypothesized that DHT can induce sex-specific rapid membrane effects similar to other steroid hormones. Confluent cultures of chondrocytes isolated from resting zones of growth plates of both male and female rats were treated with 10(-10)-10(-7)M testosterone or DHT for 3, 9, 90 and 270min and protein kinase C (PKC) and phospholipase A2 (PLA2) activities were measured. To examine potential signaling pathways involved in PKC activation, male chondrocytes were treated with 10(-7)M DHT for 9min in the presence or absence of the phospholipase C (PLC) inhibitor U73122, the secretory PLA2 inhibitor quinacrine or the cytosolic PLA2 inhibitor AACOCF3; the Gαi inhibitor pertussis toxin (PTX) or Gαs activator cholera toxin (CTX), and the general G-protein inhibitor GDPβS; thapsigargin, an inhibitor of a Ca-ATPase pump in the endoplasmic reticulum; verapamil and nifedipine, inhibitors of specific L type Ca2+ channels on the cell membrane; and cyproterone acetate (CPA), which is an inhibitor of the classical androgen receptor (AR); as well as the transcription inhibitor actinomycin D, or the translation inhibitor cycloheximide. DHT induced a dose-dependent increase in PKC and PLA2 activity in male cells with the highest increase at 10(-7)M DHT (p

We sought to define the prevalence of blaZ gene types and the inoculum effect to cefazolin among methicillin-susceptible Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA) bloodstream infections. The blaZ gene was present in 142/185 (77%) isolates. A total of 50 (27%) isolates had a ≥4-fold increase in the cefazolin MIC from a standard to a high inoculum, and 8 (4%) demonstrated a nonsusceptible cefazolin MIC, all type A blaZ strains. The efficacy of cefazolin in the presence of the inoculum effect requires further study.

In 2010 the Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) lowered the susceptibility breakpoints of some cephalosporins and aztreonam for Enterobacteriaceae and eliminated the need to perform screening for extended-spectrum β-lactamases (ESBLs) and confirmatory tests. The aim of this study was to determine how many ESBL-producing strains of three common species of Enterobacteriaceae test susceptible using the new breakpoints. As determined with the CLSI screening and confirmatory tests, 382 consecutive ESBL-producing strains were collected at Huashan Hospital between 2007 and 2008, including 158 strains of Escherichia coli , 164 of Klebsiella pneumoniae , and 60 of Proteus mirabilis . Susceptibility was determined by the CLSI agar dilution method. CTX-M-, TEM-, and SHV-specific genes were determined by PCR amplification and sequencing. bla CTX-M genes alone or in combination with bla SHV were present in 92.7% (354/382) of these ESBL-producing strains. Forty-two (25.6%) strains of K. pneumoniae harbored SHV-type ESBLs alone or in combination. No TEM ESBLs were found. Utilizing the new breakpoints, all 382 strains were resistant to cefazolin, cefotaxime, and ceftriaxone, while 85.0 to 96.7% of P. mirabilis strains tested susceptible to ceftazidime, cefepime, and aztreonam, 41.8 to 45.6% of E. coli strains appeared to be susceptible to ceftazidime and cefepime, and 20.1% of K. pneumoniae were susceptible to cefepime. In conclusion, all ESBL-producing strains of Enterobacteriaceae would be reported to be resistant to cefazolin, cefotaxime, and ceftriaxone by using the new CLSI breakpoints, but a substantial number of ESBL-containing P. mirabilis and E. coli strains would be reported to be susceptible to ceftazidime, cefepime, and aztreonam, which is likely due to the high prevalence of CTX-M type ESBLs.

Histoplasmosis is known to be an AIDS-associated infection, with scattered areas of endemicity throughout the world. Although the Atlanta, GA, metropolitan area is not a highly endemic area, a significant number of cases have been noted at our institution in recent years. Cases of histoplasmosis over a 4-year period were reviewed. All 27 patients (100%) were HIV infected. Thirty percent of patients with histoplasmosis were from Latin American countries. Patients from Latin America were younger than patients from the United States, tended to be more likely to have proven disease, and were exclusively male. Patients with proven disease had significantly higher urine histoplasma antigen levels, lower platelets counts, and lower neutrophil counts than patients with probable disease. The majority of patients survived after treatment with antifungals and initiation of antiretroviral therapy. Histoplasmosis is thus an important consideration in the workup of patients with advanced HIV in nonendemic areas of the United States.

Herpes simplex virus (HSV) encephalitis has a predilection for the temporal and frontal lobes but occasionally affects the brainstem. We describe a patient who developed HSV brainstem encephalitis that progressed to quadriplegia. Using MEDLINE, we conducted a comprehensive review of other published cases of HSV brainstem encephalitis. Twenty-four published cases of HSV brainstem encephalitis met our inclusion criteria. The mean age was 41.4 years (range 18-71). HSV-1 was the etiologic agent in 79% of reported HSV brainstem encephalitis cases, and HSV-2 accounted for 21% of cases. Infection was limited to the brainstem in 29% of cases and multi-focal, including the brainstem, in 71%. Common manifestations of HSV brainstem encephalitis included neuro-ophthalmologic findings (81%), cranial nerve deficits (69%), and fever (69%). Quadriplegia, as occurred in our patient, was an unusual finding (19%). The mortality rate of HSV brainstem encephalitis was 41%. Intravenous acyclovir showed a beneficial effect on mortality (75% vs. 22%, p = 0.06). HSV brainstem encephalitis is a distinct type of HSV encephalitis. With the increasing use of HSV-PCR, more cases of HSV brainstem encephalitis may be identified. A greater recognition of this syndrome will help better define its optimal treatment and prognosis.

Coagulase-negative staphylococcal species are generally considered commensal inhabitants of the skin. Often regarded as avirulent organisms, certain species such as Staphylococcus lugdunensis have been identified as the cause of severe human infections including infective endocarditis. We report on a case of a native valve, S. lugdunensis infective endocarditis relapse after initial conservative medical therapy. A literature review of the outcomes of treatment was also performed. Analyzing definitive medical versus medical-surgical treatment of native valve infective endocarditis, an odds ratio of mortality of 3.1875 (95% confidence interval [CI], 1.1855-8.5705; P < 0.03) was obtained and was significant based on 2-tailed Fisher exact probability test. This analysis reveals an increase risk of mortality with medical therapy alone versus medical-surgical therapy for native valve infective endocarditis. Our case and review of the literature emphasize the growing evidence that early medical treatment and surgical evaluation and removal of infected foreign hardware is required to prevent significant morbidity and mortality.

Both chondrocytes and mensenchymal stem cells (MSCs) are the most used cell sources for cartilage tissue engineering. However, monolayer expansion to obtain sufficient cells leads to a rapid chondrocyte dedifferentiation and a subsequent ancillary reduced ability of MSCs to differentiate into chondrocytes, thus limiting their application in cartilage repair. The aim of this study was to investigate the influence of the monolayer expansion on the immunophenotype and the gene expression profile of both cell types, and to find the appropriate compromise between monolayer expansion and the remaining chondrogenic characteristics. To this end, human chondrocytes, isolated enzymatically from femoral head slice, and human MSCs, derived from bone marrow, were maintained in monolayer culture up to passage 5. The respective expressions of cell surface markers (CD34, CD45, CD73, CD90, CD105, CD166) and several chondrogenic-related genes for each passage (P0-P5) of those cells were then analyzed using flow cytometry and quantitative real-time PCR, respectively. Flow cytometry analyses showed that, during the monolayer expansion, some qualitative and quantitative regulations occur for the expression of cell surface markers. A rapid increase in mRNA expression of type 1 collagen occurs whereas a significant decrease of type 2 collagen and Sox 9 was observed in chondrocytes through the successive passages. On the other hand, the expansion did not induced obvious change in MSCs gene expression. In conclusion, our results suggest that passage 1 might be the up-limit for chondrocytes in order to achieve their subsequent redifferentiation in 3D scaffold. Nevertheless, MSCs could be expanded in monolayer until passage 5 without loosing their undifferentiated phenotypes.

To the Editor: Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR TB), i.e., TB resistant to at least the 2 most effective first-line antituberculous drugs (isoniazid [INH] and rifampin [RIF]), is increasing globally. World Health Organization estimations of 390,000–510,000 new MDR TB cases and 150,000 related deaths in 2008 highlight the need for timely drug susceptibility testing and improved therapies (1). Although novel rapid drug susceptibility testing tools are increasingly available, their clinical applicability is unsettled. We report a patient with pulmonary TB relapse with discordant genotypic and in vitro phenotypic drug susceptibility testing results associated with a mutation outside the RIF resistance determining region (RRDR) of the rpoB gene. In August 2009, a 45-year-old homeless woman with AIDS (CD4+ T-cell count 3 cells/mm3) and a history of substance abuse sought care for fever, night sweats, weight loss, and cough (Table A1). Pulmonary TB had been diagnosed in June 2008. At that time, she received, by directly observed therapy, 6 weeks of INH, RIF, pyrazinamide (PZA), and ethambutol (EMB) through the local health department and was switched to RIF, PZA, and EMB on week 7 after the isolate was determined by liquid culture with BD BACTEC MGIT 960 Mycobacterial Testing System (BD Diagnostics, Sparks, MD, USA) to be INH resistant. During that period, she resided in American Lung Association–supported housing for TB patients and had 97% medication adherence by dose count. Her condition clinically improved, infiltrates completely resolved according to chest radiograph, 12 sputum inductions failed to yield sufficient material for analysis, and she began highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). In December 2008, however, because of crack cocaine use and belligerent behavior, she lost housing privileges. Caseworkers could not locate her to complete the 9-month planned directly observed therapy. The woman was hospitalized in January and again in February 2009 with dyspnea and off medications. In both instances, chest radiographs showed no new changes, sputum specimens were negative for acid-fast bacilli (AFB) by microscopy and culture, and she was treated for presumptive Pneumocystis pneumonia and showed clinical improvement. In August 2009, she was readmitted with cough and new cavitation on chest radiograph. Chest computed tomographic scan demonstrated right upper lobe infiltrates, bilateral lower lobe cavitation, and hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathy. Sputum AFB smear was positive (graded 4+), and nucleic acid amplification (Amplified Mycobacterium Direct Test; Gen-Probe, San Diego, CA, USA) was positive for Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex. INH, RIF, PZA, and EMB, along with moxifloxacin (MXF) and amikacin (AMK), were initiated in accordance with 2003 national TB treatment guidelines for possible MDR TB (2). Shortly thereafter, a line probe assay (GenoType MTBDRplus; HAIN Lifescience, Nehren, Germany) performed by Southeastern National TB Center (Gainesville, FL, USA) on the culture of the sputum specimen obtained at admission indicated an inhA point mutation but no mutation in the RRDR region of the rpoB gene, which suggested that the isolate was INH resistant but RIF susceptible. AMK was discontinued, and the patient was discharged with RIF, PZA, EMB, and MXF. One week later, drug susceptibility testing (BD BACTEC MGIT 960 System) results from the state mycobacteriology laboratory demonstrated that the M. tuberculosis isolate was resistant to INH and RIF. The patient was readmitted to resume injectable aminoglycoside therapy. After 5 weeks, sputum culture became negative, clinical and radiographic improvement was apparent, and HAART was reinitiated. She completed 2 months’ INH/PZA/EMB/MXF/AMK inpatient therapy and was discharged to complete 6 additional months of PZA/EMB/MXF and streptomycin followed by 16 months of PZA/EMB/MFX. With HAART, her plasma HIV RNA viral load became undetectable, but her CD4 count remained low (9 cells/mm3). She died from a motor vehicle accident 10 months after recurrent TB was diagnosed. In this patient, RIF resistance was not predicted by line probe assay but was identified phenotypically by an automated system (BD BACTEC MGIT 960 System) that continuously monitors for growth and detection of mycobacteria. Through genotyping and DNA sequencing of the 2008 and 2009 M. tuberculosis isolates, the Mycobacteriology Laboratory Branch at the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (Atlanta, GA, USA) established that the 2009 infection was a relapse, not re-infection, and confirmed the inhA mutation in both isolates. Using primers extending beyond the RRDR (the rpoB region surveyed by rapid molecular tests and responsible for >95% of RIF resistance mutations) the laboratory identified a novel rpoB gene mutation at codon 480 (ACC→AAC; Thr→Asn) and another previously described (3–5) mutation at codon 176 (GTC→TTC; Val→Phe) in the 2009 isolate, which has been implicated in RIF resistance. The role of the T480N mutation in RIF resistance is being investigated. This case demonstrates the limitations of rapid molecular drug susceptibility testing (6). Rapid molecular diagnostics are valuable adjuncts to conventional phenotypic testing because they can quickly confirm clinically suspected MDR TB and have high agreement with other genotypic and phenotypic methods (7–10). However, they should not supplant phenotypic testing, and clinicians should understand their limitations. When rapid molecular tests are negative but suspicion for MDR TB is high, MDR TB treatment should be continued until phenotypic susceptibility results are available. DNA sequencing may be best suited for evaluating suspected drug-resistant M. tuberculosis isolates with discordant results for phenotypic susceptibility and rapid molecular testing.

Introduction The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention has recommended using a nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) for diagnosing pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) but there is a lack of data on NAAT cost-effectiveness. Methods We conducted a prospective cohort study that included all patients with an AFB smear-positive respiratory specimen at Grady Memorial Hospital in Atlanta, GA, USA between January 2002 and June 2008. We determined the sensitivity, specificity, and positive and negative predictive value of a commercially available and FDA-approved NAAT (amplified MTD, Gen-Probe) compared to the gold standard of culture. A cost analysis was performed and included costs related to laboratory tests, hospital charges, anti-TB medications, and contact investigations. Average cost per patient was calculated under two conditions: (1) using a NAAT on all AFB smear-postive respiratory specimens and (2) not using a NAAT. One-way sensitivity analyses were conducted to determine sensitivity of cost difference to reasonable ranges of model inputs. Results During a 6 1/2 year study period, there were 1,009 patients with an AFB smear-positive respiratory specimen at our public urban hospital. We found the NAAT to be highly sensitive (99.6%) and specific (99.1%) on AFB smear-positive specimens compared to culture. Overall, the positive predictive value (PPV) of an AFB smear-positive respiratory specimen for culture-confirmed TB was 27%. The PPV of an AFB smear-positive respiratory specimen for culture-confirmed TB was significantly higher for HIV-uninfected persons compared to those who were HIV-seropositive (152/271 [56%] vs. 85/445 [19%]; RR = 2.94, 95% CI 2.36–3.65, p

Objectives Nosocomial pathogens such as Acinetobacter baumannii are a growing public health threat, due in part to their increasing resistance to antibiotics. Since some strains are resistant to all available antibiotics, novel therapies are urgently needed. Plasmablasts are short-lived B cells found in the blood that can be collected and harnessed to produce therapeutic antibodies. We set out to determine whether plasmablasts are induced during infection with A. baumannii and other nosocomial pathogens. Methods We obtained blood samples from patients infected with antibiotic-resistant nosocomial pathogens, and analysed their plasmablast response by flow cytometry. Results We observed a strong induction of plasmablasts in patients with antibiotic-resistant A. baumannii infection. Furthermore, plasmablasts were also induced in response to other drug-resistant nosocomial pathogens. Conclusions These data suggest that plasmablasts may be broadly harnessed to develop therapeutic antibodies to combat otherwise untreatable antibiotic-resistant infections.

1α,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 [1α,25(OH)2D3] is crucial for normal skeletal development and bone homeostasis. Protein disulfide isomerase family A, member 3 (PDIA3) mediates 1α,25(OH)2D3 initiated-rapid membrane signaling in several cell types. To understand its role in regulating skeletal development, we generated Pdia3-deficient mice and examined the physiologic consequence of Pdia3-disruption in embryos and Pdia3 +/− heterozygotes at different ages. No mice homozygous for the Pdia3-deletion were found at birth nor were there embryos after E12.5, indicating that targeted disruption of the Pdia3 gene resulted in early embryonic lethality. Pdia3-deficiency also resulted in skeletal manifestations as revealed by µCT analysis of the tibias. In comparison to wild type mice, Pdia3 heterozygous mice displayed expanded growth plates associated with decreased tether formation. Histomorphometry also showed that the hypertrophic zone in Pdia3 +/− mice was more cellular than seen in wild type growth plates. Metaphyseal trabecular bone in Pdia3 +/− mice exhibited an age-dependent phenotype with lower BV/TV and trabecular numbers, which was most pronounced at 15 weeks of age. Bone marrow cells from Pdia3 +/− mice exhibited impaired osteoblastic differentiation, based on reduced expression of osteoblast markers and mineral deposition compared to cells from wild type animals. Collectively, our findings provide in vivo evidence that PDIA3 is essential for normal skeletal development. The fact that the Pdia3 +/− heterozygous mice share a similar growth plate and bone phenotype to nVdr knockout mice, suggests that PDIA3-mediated rapid membrane signaling might be an alternative mechanism responsible for 1α,25(OH)2D3’s actions in regulating skeletal development.

Protein-disulfide isomerase-associated 3 (Pdia3) is a multifunctional protein hypothesized to be a membrane receptor for 1,25(OH)(2)D(3). In intestinal epithelium and chondrocytes, 1,25(OH)(2)D(3) stimulates rapid membrane responses that are different from genomic effects via the vitamin D receptor (VDR). In this study, we show that 1,25(OH)(2)D(3) stimulates phospholipase A(2) (PLA(2))-dependent rapid release of prostaglandin E(2) (PGE(2)), activation of protein kinase C (PKC), and regulation of bone-related gene transcription and mineralization in osteoblast-like MC3T3-E1 cells (WT) via a mechanism involving Pdia3. Pdia3 was present in caveolae based on co-localization with lipid rafts and caveolin-1. In Pdia3-silenced (Sh-Pdia3) cells, 1,25(OH)(2)D(3) failed to stimulate PKC and PGE(2) responses; in Pdia3-overexpressing cells (Ov-Pdia3), responses to 1,25(OH)(2)D(3) were augmented. Downstream mediators of Pdia3, PLA(2)-activating protein (PLAA) and arachidonic acid, stimulated similar PKC activation in wild-type, Sh-Pdia3, and Ov-Pdia3 cells supporting the hypothesis that Pdia3 mediates the membrane action of 1,25(OH)(2)D(3). Treatment of MC3T3-E1 cells with 1,25(OH)(2)D(3) for 9 min stimulated rapid phosphorylation of extracellular signal-regulated kinases 1 and 2 (ERK1/2) and increased expression of alkaline phosphatase, MMP-13, and osteopontin but decreased expression of osteocalcin, osteoprotegerin (mRNA and protein), and smad2. These effects were attenuated in Sh-Pdia3 cells. Sh-Pdia3 cells produced higher numbers of von Kossa-positive nodules and alizarin red-positive nodules compared with WT cells with or without 1,25(OH)(2)D(3) treatment whereas Ov-Pdia3 did not show any mineralization. Our data suggest Pdia3 is an important initiator of 1,25(OH)(2)D(3)-stimulated membrane signaling pathways, which have both genomic and non genomic effects during osteoblast maturation.

1,25-dihydroxy-vitamin D3 [1alpha,25(OH)2D3] is a critical regulator of bone development. Protein disulfide isomerase A3 (Pdia3) is a multifunctional protein that has been associated with rapid membrane-initiated signalling by 1alpha,25(OH)2D3 in several cell types. To identify the physiological roles of Pdia3 in skeletal development, we generated Pdia3-deficient mice. No homozygous mice were observed at birth, indicating that the targeted disruption of the Pdia3 gene resulted in embryonic lethality. Pdia3 deficiency also resulted in skeletal manifestations as revealed by muCT analysis of femurs from 15-week-old heterozygous mice. The Pdia3+/- mice had increased metaphyseal bone volume and trabeculae compared to Pdia3+/+ mice. In contrast, the area and thickness of cortical bone at the femoral mid-diaphysis of Pdia3+/+ mice significantly exceeded that of Pdia3+/- mice. In vitro studies in osteoblast-like MC3T3-E1 cells showed that silencing of Pdia3 abolished 1alpha,25(OH)2D3-induced rapid activation of protein kinase C (PKC) while overexpression of Pdia3 resulted in augmentation of PKC activity by 1alpha,25(OH)2D3. Taken together, these data indicated that Pdia3 plays a crucial role in 1alpha,25(OH)2D3-regulated bone formation and the Pdia3-PKC signalling pathway might be involved in this process.

Background.A cluster of patients with respiratory cultures positive for Pseudomonas aeruginosa with a unique antibiogram was observed during June and July 2007 at a 1,000-bed urban teaching hospital in Atlanta, Georgia. These P. aeruginosa isolates were recovered from bronchoscopically obtained specimens.Methods.A cross-sectional study was performed to assess whether the cluster was associated with exposure to a particular bronchoscope (B1); cultures from specimens from the bronchoscopes and the environment were obtained, and the P. aeruginosa isolate type was determined using pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE). Records of patients exposed to B1 during the cluster period were reviewed.Results.Twelve patients with a culture positive for P. aeruginosa with the unique susceptibility pattern were identified in June-July 2007. No cases were documented from March 1 through May 31, 2007. Culture specimens obtained from B1 after high-level disinfection revealed P. aeruginosa, prompting removal of B1 from service on July 23, 2007. No cases occurred after that date. Eleven (55%) of 20 patients who were exposed to Bl during the cluster period had a culture positive for P. aeruginosa, compared with 1 (2%) of 53 patients who were exposed to other bronchoscopes (P < .001). PFGE patterns for P. aeruginosa isolates obtained from case patients and from B1 were identical. An engineering evaluation of B1 documented several internal damages. Two (10.5%) of 19 patients exposed to Bl during the cluster period may have developed P. aeruginosa infection following exposure to B1.Conclusions.An outbreak or pseudo-outbreak of P. aeruginosa infection occurred in association with use of a damaged bronchoscope. Periodic engineering maintenance may be needed to prevent bronchoscope contamination that is resistant to high-level disinfection.

In addition to basic microbiological methods, such as microscopy and culture, to detect pathologic organisms, antigen or antibody detection methods by immunoassay and nucleic acid detection by amplification technology have been developed, are commonly used, and will be expanded further for rapid and accurate diagnosis of the common or newly emerging infection-causing agents, such as viruses, in clinical as well as public health laboratories. Since the first competitive radioimmunoassay was developed more than 40 years ago for human insulin detection (Yalow and Berson, 1960), immunoassays have been developed with emphasis on fast and sensitive detection technologies and automated systems. Due to the demand of large-scale screening for epidemiology, blood bank, prenatal care, and diagnosis of HIV and hepatitis, more immunodiagnostic procedures are performed using instruments and reagents similar to traditional immunochemistry platforms, including tests for oncology, toxicology, cardiology, and endocrinology. Immunoassays for detection of host-produced antibodies directed against microorganisms, particularly viruses, is now one of the most widely used analytical techniques in laboratory medicine (Andreotti et al., 2003; Peruski and Peruski, 2003). This chapter will review the antibody detection assays, limitations for detection and identification of infectious agents, and look into the application of those technologies with emphasis on development of detection methods such as chemiluminescent and multianalyte profile (xMAP), automation and their clinical application in the areas of diagnosing HIV, hepatitis, and other viral infections.

Ex vivo expansion of hematopoietic stem cells (HSC) can help reduce cytopenia following transplantation, especially in NHL patients whose BM is deficient because of extensive chemotherapy. We have previously reported that human umbilical vein endothelial cells (HUVEC) can contribute to improved PBPC expansion when used in co-culture with CD34(+) cells.We evaluated the roles of direct HUVEC CD34(+) contact and HUVEC-produced soluble factors. We cultured CD34(+) PBPC harvested from NHL patients in four different conditions: (1) liquid culture without HUVEC; (2) co-culture in contact with HUVEC; (3) co-culture with HUVEC but without direct contact; (4) liquid culture with HUVEC-conditioned medium (CM). Thrombopoietin (Tpo), Flk2Flt3 ligand (FL) and c-kit ligand (KL) with or without rhIL-6 were added to these four culture conditions.Our results showed that HUVEC co-culture or addition of HUVEC-CM to Tpo, FL and KL (TFK) improved CD34(+) PBPC expansion compared with liquid culture, as determined by total viable nucleated cells (TNC), colony-forming cell assay (CFC) and week-6 cobblestone area-forming cells (Wk-6 CAFC) expansions. Non-contact culture led to similar PBPC expansion as contact co-culture; moreover, HUVEC-CM improved PBPC expansion. However, when rhIL-6 was added to HUVEC-CM with TFK, no significant difference was observed. Finally, high quantities of IL-6 were detected in HUVEC-CM and addition of anti-IL-6 Ab inhibited the positive effect of HUVEC on PBPC expansion. Our results thus suggest that HUVEC may improve PBPC expansion, at least through IL-6 secretion.

Background Foreign-born, HIV-infected persons are at risk for sub-clinical parasitic infections acquired in their countries of origin. The long-term consequences of co-infections can be severe, yet few data exist on parasitic infection prevalence in this population. Methodology/Principal Findings This cross-sectional study evaluated 128 foreign-born persons at one HIV clinic. We performed stool studies and serologic testing for strongyloidiasis, schistosomiasis, filarial infection, and Chagas disease based on the patient's country of birth. Eosinophilia and symptoms were examined as predictors of helminthic infection. Of the 128 participants, 86 (67%) were male, and the median age was 40 years; 70 were Mexican/Latin American, 40 African, and 18 from other countries or regions. Strongyloides stercoralis antibodies were detected in 33/128 (26%) individuals. Of the 52 persons from schistosomiasis-endemic countries, 15 (29%) had antibodies to schistosome antigens; 7 (47%) had antibodies to S. haematobium, 5 (33%) to S. mansoni, and 3 (20%) to both species. Stool ova and parasite studies detected helminths in 5/85 (6%) persons. None of the patients tested had evidence of Chagas disease (n = 77) or filarial infection (n = 52). Eosinophilia >400 cells/mm3 was associated with a positive schistosome antibody test (OR 4.5, 95% CI 1.1–19.0). The only symptom significantly associated with strongyloidiasis was weight loss (OR 3.1, 95% CI 1.4–7.2). Conclusions/Significance Given the high prevalence of certain helminths and the potential lack of suggestive symptoms and signs, selected screening for strongyloidiasis and schistosomiasis or use of empiric antiparasitic therapy may be appropriate among foreign-born, HIV-infected patients. Identifying and treating helminth infections could prevent long-term complications., Author Summary Undiagnosed and untreated parasitic infections can have severe consequences for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected persons. An estimated 2 billion people worldwide are infected with soil-transmitted helminths and schistosomiasis, yet there are few data on the prevalence in HIV-infected immigrants to more developed countries. This information could help clinicians determine what testing is needed and what signs or symptoms to expect. We performed serologic, stool, and urine testing for selected parasites in 128 foreign-born persons receiving care at an HIV clinic in Atlanta, Georgia. We found that 26% had serologic evidence of infection with Strongyloides stercoralis and 29% had serologic evidence of schistosomiasis. Because these were likely chronic processes, symptoms and signs were often absent; only weight loss was significantly associated with strongyloidiasis. High eosinophil counts were also associated with parasitic infection. This study suggests the need for targeted screening of foreign-born, HIV-infected persons for parasitic infections (mainly strongyloidiasis and schistosomiasis) or the use of empiric antiparasitic therapy, particularly among those with unexplained eosinophilia. Although there are established guidelines for screening of refugees, health care providers should consider the risk of these organisms in patients who have entered the United States through other pathways.