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Purpose: We identified factors predicting oncologic outcomes in cases of persistently detectable prostate specific antigen., Materials and Methods: We reviewed the charts of patients treated with radical prostatectomy between 1998 and 2011 at a total of 14 centers. Study inclusion criteria were radical prostatectomy for presumed localized prostate cancer, absent positive nodes and detectable prostate specific antigen, defined as prostate specific antigen 0.1 ng/ml or greater 6 weeks postoperatively. Of the 9,735 radical prostatectomy cases reviewed 496 (5.1%) were eligible for analysis. Predictive factors for oncologic outcomes were assessed in time dependent analyses using the Kaplan-Meier method and Cox regression models., Results: At 6 weeks prostate specific antigen was 0.1 to 6.8 ng/ml. Biochemical progression was noted in 74.4% of patients and clinical metastasis was noted in 5%. The 2 most powerful predictors of general salvage treatment (vs radiotherapy) were postoperative prostate specific antigen greater than 1 ng/ml (OR 3.46, p=0.032) and prostate specific antigen velocity greater than 0.2 ng/ml per year (HR 6.01, p=0.001). Positive prostate specific antigen velocity was the single factor that independently correlated with the risk of failed salvage therapy (HR 2.6, p=0.001). The 5-year disease-free survival rate was 81.0% in patients with stable or negative prostate specific antigen velocity compared with 58.4% in those with positive prostate specific antigen velocity (p<0.001)., Conclusions: Patients with detectable prostate specific antigen after radical prostatectomy have a poor biochemical outcome. We identified postoperative prostate specific antigen and prostate specific antigen velocity as independent predictors of progression and failed salvage treatment. In addition to pathological prognostic factors, these factors should be considered early to better stratify patients for adjuvant therapy., (Copyright © 2013 American Urological Association Education and Research, Inc. Published by Elsevier Inc. All rights reserved.)

Purpose: In spite of classifications based on digital rectal examination, prostate specific antigen (PSA), transrectal echography and histological analysis, 20% to 40% of operated prostate adenocarcinomas are not yet organ confined. New diagnostic features to predict extracapsular invasion before treatment are needed to avoid surgical extraction within positive margins., Materials and Methods: A retrospective study was performed for 74 prostate adenocarcinomas with Gleason 3+3. A total of 54 organ confined tumors (T1T2) at digital rectal examination were compared with 20 nonorgan confined tumors (T3T4). Image cytometric DNA analysis was performed on prostate initial biopsies. DNA ploidy results were compared in both groups for values of PSA greater than 15, less than 15 and less than 10 ng/ml., Results: For a PSA rate less than 15 ng/ml, 83.8% of T1T2 were diploid vs 33% T3T4 (p = 0.042). For a PSA rate less than 10 ng/ml, 96% of T1T2 were diploid vs 33% T3T4 (p = 0.025)., Conclusions: DNA ploidy appears to be an interesting feature at diagnosis. When in doubt about the localized character of a tumor, DNA ploidy it makes it possible to predict a nonorgan confined tumor. Gleason 3+3 prostate cancers that are organ confined at digital rectal examination are more often diploid than T3T4 tumors. The prognostic interest in DNA ploidy is more reserved because of its correlation with PSA level.

Purpose: Endothelial P2y purinoceptor stimulation is known to induce vasodilatation mediated by NO release from endothelial cells. We examined the effect of a potent P2y agonist, adenosine-5'-O-(2-thiodiphosphate) (ADPbetaS), on human corporal cavernosal strips and its dependence on a functional endothelial lining., Materials and Methods: The preparations mounted in isometric conditions were precontracted by noradrenaline (NA) at a concentration of 0.1 microM. Increasing concentrations of ADPbetaS from 1 microM to 100 microM were added in the presence and absence of a functional endothelium or in the presence and absence of an NO synthase inhibitor and a selective P2y antagonist. Acetylcholine (Ach)-induced relaxation was used in each experiment for control., Results: In human precontracted corporal cavernosal strips with a functional endothelium (relaxed by acetylcholine) ADPbetaS induces a dose-dependent relaxation with maximal relaxation of 45.5+/-5.0% and an EC50 of 11.7 microM. The relaxant effect of ADPbetaS was reduced by 77.1+/-7.0% by reactive blue 2 (20 microM)(a P2y antagonist). L-NAME (L-Nitro Arginin Methyl Ester), an NO synthase inhibitor (100 microM), reduced Ach- and ADPbetaS- induced relaxations by 86.59+/-3.24% and 86.83+/-0.5% respectively. Ach- and ADPbetaS- induced relaxations were significantly inhibited after dislodging of the endothelial lining of the corporal cavernosal strips, 90.11+/-6.2% and 87.1+/-5% respectively., Conclusions: Human corporal cavernosal strips can be relaxed by stimulation of P2y purinoceptors via NO release. This relaxation is an endothelium-dependent mechanism. Purines may be implicated in physiological erection in man.

A total of 23 patients who had an intraoperative penile erection during endoscopic or penile surgery underwent intracavernous injection of 200 micrograms phenylephrine. Detumescence occurred rapidly in all patients with a single injection. Hemodynamic changes consisted of a transient increase in systolic and diastolic blood pressures (+9%, p < 0.05) without significant change in pulse rate (-5%, p > 0.05). No marked side effect was reported even in elderly patients. Intraoperative penile erection, which seems to be more frequent in patients younger than 50 years, during general anesthesia with propofol or epidural anesthesia, can be treated safely with intracavernous injection of phenylephrine.

Due to the increased use of modern imaging systems during the last few years, kidney tumors are often diagnosed at an earlier and less advanced stage. This fact implies a reevaluation of the operative technique of radical nephrectomy that was recommended 30 years ago. The ipsilateral adrenal involvement during radical nephrectomy for renal cell carcinoma is assessed and the necessity of its extirpation is discussed. Between September 1987 and September 1993, we performed 299 radical nephrectomies for renal cell carcinoma and removed 285 ipsilateral adrenal glands. Eleven adrenal glands (3.8%) were involved with the kidney tumor and 274 (96.2%) were free of disease. In 7 of the adrenal gland involved cases (63.6%) the tumor invaded the gland by direct extension from the superior pole of the kidney. In the other 4 cases the ipsilateral adrenal gland was affected by a metastatic lesion. In all 11 adrenal gland involved cases the tumors were at an advanced stage (the lowest was stage pT3N1). Our results led us to recommend adrenalectomy during radical nephrectomy only when direct extension of the kidney tumor into the gland is suspected (upper pole or large tumors) or when the adrenal is the site of a single metastasis. Macroscopically normal adrenal glands at radical nephrectomy should not be routinely extirpated. Metastatic renal cell carcinoma (not by contiguity) in the ipsilateral adrenal gland should be regarded as a stage M+ (distant metastasis) tumor.

We studied 43 patients with newly diagnosed, untreated, stage D2 prostatic carcinoma, and correlated the initial performance status, hemoglobin, prostate specific antigen levels, tumor Gleason grade, extent of disease on the bone scan, and erythrocyte spermidine and spermine levels with progression. Three patients died of unrelated causes and were excluded from the study, 16 remained in remission with a mean 28 +/- 11 months of followup and 24 had progression (18, or 75%, of whom died of the cancer) with a mean 12 +/- 9 months of followup (p < 0.05 for followup) after initiation of hormonal therapy. Pretreatment performance status, hemoglobin, and erythrocyte spermidine and spermine levels were correlated with progression, hemoglobin and spermine being the most significant independent variables (p = 0.006 and p = 0.001, respectively). Concerning cause-specific survival, only hemoglobin and spermine erythrocyte levels were significant independent variables (p = 0.02 and p = 0.0025, respectively). If confirmed, polyamine erythrocyte levels obtained by a simple blood sample could discriminate at diagnosis patients with a high risk of rapid hormonal relapse who may benefit from a more aggressive primary management.

The aim of this study is to determine the value of ultrasound evaluation for the diagnosis of testis rupture due to blunt scrotal trauma. We reviewed 16 operated cases of blunt scrotal trauma with hematocele, which were evaluated by ultrasound preoperatively. In 2 cases a tunica albuginea rupture was correctly diagnosed by ultrasonography but there were 2 false-positive and 5 false-negative diagnoses of rupture. Systematic exploration of the 16 cases revealed testicular rupture in 7, simple hematocele in 7 and hematocele associated with spermatic cord injury in 2. In 2 cases orchiectomy was necessary. From our experience the accuracy rate of ultrasound evaluation of blunt scrotal trauma was 56%, with a 58% negative predictive value. Considering these results, ultrasound examination of blunt scrotal trauma with hematocele is not sufficiently accurate to eliminate surgical exploration and, therefore, we recommended early surgical exploration as primary therapy in these cases.