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Background: The supraglottic airway device (SGD) was introduced as a breakthrough in airway management. The Fastrach emerged as the first commercially available intubating SGD, drawing extensive investigation. I-gel is a more recent device that has gained popularity, can be used as an intubating SGD, and replaced Fastrach in many institutions. However, there is uncertainty regarding the comparison between these devices in terms of efficacy for intubation and ventilation, and safety in an airway rescue situation., Methods: PubMed, EMBASE, Scopus, and Cochrane databases were searched for randomized controlled trials (RCTs) comparing I-gel and Fastrach SGD in adult patients undergoing intubation. The primary outcome was the first-pass success rate for tracheal intubation. Secondary outcomes were tracheal intubation time, SGD insertion time and success, and complications. We computed risk ratios (RRs) to assess binary end points and weighted mean differences (WMDs) for continuous outcomes, with corresponding 95% confidence intervals (CIs) for the primary outcome and its subgroup analysis (P < .05 was considered statistically significant) and 99% CI after Bonferroni correction for the secondary outcomes (P < .01 was considered statistically significant)., Results: This study included a total of 14 RCTs encompassing 1340 patients. The results indicated a significant difference in the first-pass success rate favoring Fastrach (RR, 0.81; 95% CI, 0.67-0.98; P = .03; I² = 91%). In the subgroup analysis, when a flexible scope was utilized through I-gel, providers achieved a better tracheal intubation first-pass success rate (RR, 1.05; 95% CI, 1.01-1.11; P = .03; I² = 0%), compared with the Fastrach. Overall intubation success rates (RR, 0.92; 99% CI, 0.82-1.04; P = .08, I² = 92%) and time (WMD - 1.03 seconds; 99% CI, -4.75 to 2.69; P = .48; I² = 84%) showed no significant difference irrespective of the device used. There was no significant difference regarding device insertion time by the providers (WMD -6.48 seconds; 99% CI, -13.23 to 0.27; P = .01; I2 = 98%). Success rates of the providers' initial SGD insertion and complications such as sore throat (RR, 1.01; 99% CI, 0.65-1.57; P = .95, I² = 33%) and blood presence post-SGD removal (RR, 0.89; 99% CI, 0.42-1.86; P = .68, I² = 0%) showed no significant difference., Conclusions: Based on our findings, a higher first-pass success rate was observed with the use of Fastrach when compared to I-gel. However, the use of I-gel might result in a better intubation success rate with the flexible scope-guided intubation. There are no significant differences in performance in terms of the success rate for intubation overall, time for device insertion, or time to intubation or complications regardless of the device used., Competing Interests: The authors declare no conflicts of interest., (Copyright © 2024 International Anesthesia Research Society.)

Background: Activating mutations in the phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase catalytic subunit alpha (PIK3CA) gene have been detected often in solid tumors. Targeted therapy for mutant PIK3CA is now available in the clinic, making molecular diagnostics pivotal. Our aim was to design a multiplex digital PCR (dPCR) assay to evaluate the 4 most common PIK3CA hotspot mutations simultaneously to characterize and quantify these in liquid biopsies., Methods: A multiplex assay was developed to detect exon 9 p.E542K and p.E545K mutations, and exon 20 p.H1047L and p.H1047R mutations using the Stilla 3-color dPCR Naica system. The assay was evaluated on stock and pre-amplified DNA from cell lines with the above mutations as single and pooled samples, and on cell-free DNA (cfDNA) from healthy blood donors (HBDs) and breast cancer patients, to determine detection thresholds and diagnostic accuracy., Results: The assay distinguished all 4 PIK3CA mutations in (cf)DNA, and also when dual mutations were present. Detection thresholds of stock and pre-amplified cfDNA samples were 0.11 and 0.40 copies/uL (cp/uL) for mutant copies concentration, and 0.003% and 0.68% for variant allele frequencies (VAFs), respectively. The assay confirmed the PIK3CA (mutation) status as defined by targeted next-generation sequencing (NGS) in 82 out of 96 patients that were mutant for PIK3CA, and in 11 out of 12 patients with wild-type PIK3CA., Conclusions: Our designed multiplex dPCR assay detected PIK3CA mutations with high accuracy in stock and pre-amplified cfDNA. Furthermore, it is affordable and demands less cfDNA input when compared to available uniplex dPCR assays and NGS analyses., (© Association for Diagnostics & Laboratory Medicine 2024. All rights reserved. For commercial re-use, please contact reprints@oup.com for reprints and translation rights for reprints. All other permissions can be obtained through our RightsLink service via the Permissions link on the article page on our site—for further information please contact journals.permissions@oup.com.)

Objective: To explore the potential role of miR-449a as biomarker for laryngeal squamous cell carcinoma (LSCC), especially in the decision strategy of neck dissection (ND)., Methods: Each patient underwent total laryngectomy and bilateral ND (levels II-IV); during surgery, tissue samples of around 1 × 0.5 cm were extracted from both healthy tissue adjacent to the tumor and the visibly affected tumor tissue. The extraction of total RNA, encompassing miRNA, was performed using a mirVana PARIS kit. To detect miR449a, cDNA was synthesized from 200 ng of RNA using a TaqMan miRNA reverse transcription kit., Results: The study group was formed of 66 patients (62 males, and 4 females) with LSCC, aged between 39 and 77 years (mean 60 + 14.56 yr). MiR-449a was up-regulated in twenty-eight tumors (42%), while it was down-regulated in 38 samples (58%). In the present study, there was a statistical relevance for miR-449a tissue expression for pN staging (p = 0.017), and PNI (p = 0.005). Eight tumors (12%) cN0 became pN + showing occult cervical lymph node metastases at the final histopathological examination, and all of these patients showed miR-449a downregulation., Conclusion: Super-selective ND (sparing the sub evels IIb and IV) might be the approach to cT3-T4 N0 LSCCs with upregulation of miR-449a; on the other hand, to ensure and effective control of occult neck metastases it would be appropriate to reserve elective ND (including sublevels IIb and IV) for cT3-T4 N0 LSCCs with miR-449a downregulation. Although promising, due to the small size of the cohort, the results of this work can be considered preliminary and need to be confirmed by prospective and larger studies., (© 2024. The Author(s), under exclusive licence to Springer-Verlag GmbH Germany, part of Springer Nature.)

The REarranged during Transfection (RET) receptor tyrosine kinase plays a crucial role in the development of various anatomical structures during embryogenesis and it is involved in many physiological cellular processes. This protein is also associated with the initiation of various cancer types, such as thyroid cancer, non-small cell lung cancer, and multiple endocrine neoplasms. In breast cancer, and especially in the estrogen receptor-positive (ER+) subtype, the activity of RET is of notable importance. Indeed, RET seems to be involved in tumor progression, resistance to therapies, and cellular proliferation. Nevertheless, the ways RET alterations could impact the prognosis of breast cancer and its response to treatment remain only partially elucidated. Several inhibitors of RET kinase have been developed thus far, with various degrees of selectivity toward RET inhibition. These molecules showed notable efficacy in the treatment of RET-driven tumors, including some breast cancer cases. Despite these encouraging results, further investigation is needed to fully understand the potential role RET inhibition in breast cancer. This review aims to recapitulate the existing evidence about the role of RET oncogene in breast cancer, from its pathogenic and potentially prognostic role, to the clinical applications of RET inhibitors., Competing Interests: FM advisory role and honoraria from Amgen; Daiichi-Sankyo; Eli-Lilly; Gilead; GSK; Novartis; Pfizer; Roche. Support for travels and accommodations from Eli-Lilly; Gilead; Pfizer; Roche; Sophos. MG advisory role and honoraria from AstraZeneca, Daichii Sankyo, Eisai, Exact Sciences, Gilead, Lilly, Menarini Stemline; MSD, Novartis, Pfizer, Roche, Seagen. Support for travels and accommodations from Lilly, Pfizer, AstraZeneca. Research funding to the institution from AstraZeneca. PV advisory role and honoraria from Astra-Zeneca; Daiichi-Sankyo; Eli-Lilly; Gilead; Incyte; Istituto Gentili; Novartis; Pfizer; Roche; Seagen; Teva. Support for travel and accommodation from Daiichi-Sankyo; Eli-Lilly; Novartis. Research funding to the institution from Novartis and AstraZeneca. The remaining authors declare that the research was conducted in the absence of any commercial or financial relationships that could be construed as a potential conflict of interest., (Copyright © 2024 Di Grazia, Conti, Nucera, Motta, Martorana, Stella, Massimino, Giuliano and Vigneri.)

Mantle cell lymphoma (MCL) pathogenesis is strongly related to the role of the tumor immune microenvironment (TIME) in which MCL cells proliferate. TIME cells can produce growth signals influencing MCL cells' survival and exert an antitumoral immune response suppression. The activity of TIME cells might be mirrored by some ratios of peripheral blood cell subpopulations, such as the monocyte-to-platelet ratio (MPR). We reviewed the clinical features of 165 consecutive MCL patients newly diagnosed and not eligible for autologous stem cell transplantation (both for age or comorbidities) who accessed two Italian Centers between 2006 and 2020. MPR was calculated using data obtained from the complete blood cell count at diagnosis before any cytotoxic treatment and correlated with PFS. Univariate analysis showed that MPR ≥ 3 was associated with inferior PFS (p = 0.02). Multivariate analysis confirmed that MPR ≥ 3, LDH > 2.5 ULN, and bone marrow involvement were significant independent variables in predicting PFS. For these reasons, MPR ≥ 3 seems the most promising prognostic factor in patients with MCL, and it could be considered a variable in new predictive models., (© 2024. The Author(s), under exclusive licence to Springer-Verlag GmbH Germany, part of Springer Nature.)

Objectives: To describe the new semisynthetic total ossicular replacement prosthesis (New-SSTORP) and to evaluate the New-SSTORP ossiculoplasty results both with the presence and absence of the stapes superstructure., Study Design: Prospective study., Setting: Tertiary referral center., Methods: From April 2023 to May 2023, 18 New-SSTORP ossiculoplasties were performed by the first author. In all patients, the New-SSTORP was interposed between the footplate and the eardrum. The study group was divided into two groups (group A and group B). Group A included 13 patients with the absence of stapes superstructure. Group B included five patients with the presence of stapes superstructure. A successful reconstruction was defined as a postoperative air-bone gap ABG ≤20 dB. For all patients of groups A and B, the last audiometric control considered was performed in January 2024. The mean follow-up was 8½ months. The χ2 test was used to compare results. p < 0.05 was considered significant., Main Outcome Measures: Mean postoperative ABG ≤20 dB., Results: At the end of follow-up, the overall success rate (ABG ≤20 dB) of New-SSTORP ossiculoplasty was obtained in 88.8% (n = 16 of 18) of cases. In group A, the success rate of New-SSTORP ossiculoplasty occurred in 84.6% (n = 11 of 13) of cases, and in group B, the success rate of New-SSTORP ossiculoplasty occurred in 100% (n = 5 of 5) of cases. There was no audiological statistically significant difference between groups A and B (Fisher value is 1; p < 0.05). In all cases, the time for positioning of New-SSTORP was about 5 minutes., Conclusion: The New-SSTORP has a minimal technical challenge for building and placement. The New-SSTORP ossiculoplasty results are very good both with the presence and absence of SS., Competing Interests: Sources of support and disclosure of funding: G.M. has patented the shaft prosthesis and does not have funding to disclose. The remaining authors, disclose no conflicts of interest., (Copyright © 2024 The Author(s). Published by Wolters Kluwer Health, Inc. on behalf of Otology & Neurotology, Inc.)

Background: The growing understanding of cancer biology and the establishment of new treatment modalities has not yielded the expected results in terms of survival for Laryngeal Squamous Cell Cancer (LSCC). Early diagnosis, as well as prompt identification of patients with high risk of relapse would ensure greater chance of therapeutic success. However, this goal remains a challenge due to the absence of specific biomarkers for this neoplasm., Methods: Serum samples from 45 LSCC patients and 23 healthy donors were collected for miRNA expression profiling by TaqMan Array analysis. Additional 20 patients and 42 healthy volunteers were included for the validation set, reaching an equal number of clinical samples for each group. The potential diagnostic ability of the such identified three-miRNA signature was confirmed by ROC analysis. Moreover, each miRNA was analyzed for the possible correlation with HNSCC patients' survival and TNM status by online databases Kaplan-Meier (KM) plotter and OncomiR. In silico analysis of common candidate targets and their network relevance to predict shared biological functions was finally performed by PANTHER and GeneMANIA software., Results: We characterized serum miRNA profile of LSCC patients identifying a novel molecular signature, including miR-223, miR-93 and miR-532, as circulating marker endowed with high selectivity and specificity. The oncogenic effect and the prognostic significance of each miRNA was investigated by bioinformatic analysis, denoting significant correlation with OS. To analyse the molecular basis underlying the pro-tumorigenic role of the signature, we focused on the simultaneously regulated gene targets-IL6ST, GTDC1, MAP1B, CPEB3, PRKACB, NFIB, PURB, ATP2B1, ZNF148, PSD3, TBC1D15, PURA, KLF12-found by prediction tools and deepened for their functional role by pathway enrichment analysis. The results showed the involvement of 7 different biological processes, among which inflammation, proliferation, migration, apoptosis and angiogenesis., Conclusions: In conclusion, we have identified a possible miRNA signature for early LSCC diagnosis and we assumed that miR-93, miR-223 and miR-532 could orchestrate the regulation of multiple cancer-related processes. These findings encourage the possibility to deepen the molecular mechanisms underlying their oncogenic role, for the desirable development of novel therapeutic opportunities based on the use of short single-stranded oligonucleotides acting as non-coding RNA antagonists in cancer., (© 2024. The Author(s).)

Background: Enlarged vestibular aqueduct (EVA) syndrome can mimic otosclerosis in adults, presenting with an air-bone gap (ABG) and even absent stapedial reflexes. The ABG in inner-ear disorders is currently the object of several authors' studies and seems to be related to a third mobile window (TMW) phenomenon. This can lead to misdiagnosis and inappropriate treatment. Given that it would be inappropriate and harmful to perform CT scans in all patients with a clinical diagnosis of otosclerosis, this study aims to highlight some clinical features useful for the differential diagnosis between otosclerosis and these rare cases of EVA presenting with an ABG, thus enabling the identification of suspected cases to be tested with CT scans., Methods: Between April and May 2024, a narrative review was conducted focusing on the differential diagnosis between some rare cases of EVA and otosclerosis. Clinical, audiological, and radiologic features of both conditions were investigated., Results: This review demonstrates the diagnostic challenge in differentiating atypical cases of EVA from otosclerosis in a subset of patients. Clinical and audiological features are important for differential diagnosis, but may not always be sufficient. Therefore, high-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) of the temporal bone plays a pivotal role in definitive diagnosis., Conclusions: In some specific cases, pre-operative imaging assessment using HRCT emerges as an essential tool for differentiating these two conditions and avoiding unnecessary stapes surgery.

Background: Exosomes are nanosized vesicles released from all cells into surrounding biofluids, including cancer cells, and represent a very promising direction in terms of minimally invasive approaches to early disease detection. They carry tumor-specific biological contents such as DNA, RNA, proteins, lipids, and sugars, as well as surface molecules that are able to pinpoint the cellular source. By the above criteria, exosomes may be stratified according to the presence of tissue and disease-specific signatures and, due to their stability in such biofluids as plasma and serum, they represent an indispensable source of vital clinical insights from liquid biopsies, even at the earliest stages of cancer. Therefore, our work aimed to isolate and characterize LCa patients' derived exosomes from serum by Flow Cytometry in order to define a specific epitope signature exploitable for early diagnosis., Methods: Circulating exosomes were collected from serum collected from 30 LCa patients and 20 healthy volunteers by the use of antibody affinity method exploiting CD63 specific surface marker. Membrane epitopes were then characterized by Flow cytometry multiplex analysis and compared between LCa Patients and Healthy donors. Clinical data were also matched to obtain statistical correlation., Results: A distinct overexpression of CD1c, CD2, CD3, CD4, CD11c, CD14, CD20, CD44, CD56, CD105, CD146, and CD209 was identified in LCa patients compared to healthy controls, correlating positively with tumor presence. Conversely, CD24, CD31, and CD40, though not overexpressed in tumor samples, showed a significant correlation with nodal involvement in LCa patients (p < 0.01)., Conclusion: This approach could allow us to set up a cost-effective and less invasive liquid biopsy protocol from a simple blood collection in order to early diagnose LCa and improve patients' outcomes and quality of life., (© 2024. The Author(s).)

Pool boiling is essential in many industrial manufacturing applications. In addition, it can become critical in the journey towards improving energy generation efficiency and accomplishing the goal of net-zero carbon emissions by 2050 via new or traditional power generation applications. The effectiveness of boiling is governed by the bubble cycle. The chemistry and topographical features of the surface being heated have been found to highly impact the boiling performance, such as in the case of pool boiling enhancement when employing hydrophilic and hydrophobic surfaces via nano/micro heater surface modification. Nevertheless, it is questionable how feasible it is to create these surfaces for large-scale applications due to their manufacturing and maintenance cost and complexity. The current work assesses whether the use of nanoparticles in traditional coolants could potentially unlock the mass production of optimised heating surface modification through a metadata literature review analysis. It was discovered that self-assembled layers created as a result of the deposition of nanoparticles in coolants undergoing pool boiling seem to behave most similarly to manufactured hydrophilic surfaces. The creation of enhanced patterned-heat transfer surfaces is shown to be possible via the use of a combination of different nanoparticle suspensions in coolants.

Objectives: We aim to verify velopharyngeal sphincter function in 22q11.2 deletion syndrome patients (22q11.2DS) to establish correlations between aerodynamic and perceptual measures of nasality, and to identify aerodynamic measures differentiating typical from atypical velopharyngeal behavior., Methods: Eleven subjects with 22q11.2DS and twenty similar-age control subjects were recruited. The aerodynamic measures were mean Sound Pressure Level, air pressure peak, pressure wave duration, airflow pattern and nasal airflow during the sequence /pi/. The nasality perceptual measures were rhinolalia, rhinophony and nasal air escape., Results: Airflow patterns and perceptual measures were statistically different in the two groups. Pressure wave duration and air pressure peak were lower in study subjects than in controls. Air pressure peak and nasal airflow were negatively correlated with rhinolalia; pressure wave duration was negatively correlated with nasal air escape and rhinolalia in 22q11.2DS patients., Conclusions: This aerodynamic study identified velopharyngeal qualitative and quantitative dysfunctions, suggesting heterogeneous models of velopharyngeal function in syndromic subjects as compared to controls.

Sexual health is pivotal to the overall health and well-being of individuals. To date, transgender persons' sexual function results to be poorly investigated. Gender affirming medical and/or surgical treatments (GAMSTs) in transgender assigned female at birth (t-AFAB) can have an impact on overall quality of life and subsequently on sexual life. Before GAMSTs, literature shows a low sexual wellbeing of t-AFAB due to a complex interaction of organic and psychological factors. During gender affirming hormone therapy, testosterone treatments induce virilization that results in a better sexual satisfaction, in particular for sexual desire, arousal and orgasm. The majority of the available literature reports an increased sexual quality of life among t-AFAB after gender affirming surgery. Nevertheless, the different surgical techniques, the possible post-operative complications and sexual pain can negatively influence sexual function. Thus, this narrative review aims to summarize the available data about modifications on sexual health status in t-AFAB before and after GAMSTs. In transgender population, dealing with the evaluation of sexual life and satisfaction represents a relevant topic with a view to promote and sustain not only sexual wellbeing but especially general quality of life., (© 2023. The Author(s), under exclusive licence to Springer Nature Limited.)

Background: Permanent tracheostomy because of total laryngectomy surgery entails significant consequences for patients regarding respiratory physiopathology, such as the loss of the filtering, humidifying, and heating of air by the nose. The use of special stomal filters can provide adequate protection of the tracheal-bronchopulmonary system with a reduction in respiratory pathologies. In fact, in most cases, laryngectomy patients are first cigarette smokers who for this reason also already have respiratory diseases such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Despite the availability of tracheal filters, as reported in the literature, patients often tend to limit their use due to reported breathing difficulties, especially in conditions of intense breathing. Methods: The objective of this clinical study was to evaluate the most suitable stomal filter for laryngectomy patients during physical activity. The filters studied were an INHEALTH device (Blom-Singer SpeakFree HME); two ATOS devices (Provox ® Life™ Energy HME and Provox ® Life™ Home HME); and an FAHL device (Laryvox HME Sport). Results : For this purpose, the performances of 31 laryngectomy patients, subjected to medium-high physical effort, were analyzed through a standardized pneumological test, the Six Minute Walking Test (6MWT), which involves a sustained walk lasting six minutes, with an evaluation of heart rate, oxygen saturation, and meters traveled every 60 s; furthermore, we examined two subjective indices, namely, the basal and final dyspnea index and the initial and final muscular fatigue index. Conclusions: The multidisciplinary approach of the laryngectomee patient must also take pulmonary rehabilitation into consideration. It is the task of the medical team and speech therapy support to help the patient in the correct choice of HME filters taking into account daily needs., Competing Interests: The authors declare no conflicts of interest.

Background: Descending necrotizing mediastinitis (DNM) is a life-threatening condition, generally caused by downward dissemination of oropharyngeal infections through cervical fascial planes. Mediastinal drainage is conventionally achieved by thoracotomy, but a Video-Assisted Thoracoscopic Surgery (VATS) approach is gaining interest due to the reduced invasiveness of procedure. We aimed to evaluate the effectiveness of VATS treatment in patients with DNM. Methods: We conducted a retrospective multicenter study including patients with descending mediastinitis that underwent mediastinal drainage through VATS (VATS group) or thoracotomy (thoracotomy group), both in association with cervical drainage. Patients with mediastinitis secondary to cardiac, pulmonary, or esophageal surgery were excluded. The intergroup differences regarding surgical outcome and postoperative morbidity and mortality were compared. Results: A total of 21 patients were treated for descending mediastinitis during the study period. Cervicotomy and thoracotomy were performed in 15 patients (71%), while cervicotomy and VATS were performed in 6 patients (29%). There were no significant differences in surgical outcome, postoperative morbidity, and mortality between groups. VATS treatment was not associated with a higher complication rate. Patients in the VATS group had a shorter operative time ( p = 0.016) and shorter ICU stay ( p = 0.026). Conclusions: VATS treatment of DNM is safe and effective. The comparison with thoracotomy showed no significant differences in postoperative morbidity and mortality. The VATS approach is associated with a shorter operative time and ICU stay than thoracotomy.

The CCR4 receptor is a pivotal target in cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL) therapy due to its role in impairing immune responses against malignant T-cells and expression profiles. Monoclonal antibodies like mogamulizumab effectively bind to CCR4, reducing tumour burden and enhancing patient outcomes by inhibiting the receptor's interaction with ligands, thereby hindering malignant T-cell migration and survival. Combining CCR4 antibodies with chemotherapy, radiation, and other drugs is being explored for synergistic effects. Additionally, small-molecular inhibitors, old pharmacological agents interacting with CCR4, and CAR-T therapies are under investigation. Challenges include drug resistance, off-target effects, and patient selection, addressed through ongoing trials refining protocols and identifying biomarkers. Despite advancements, real-life data for most of the emerging treatments are needed to temper expectations. In conclusion, CCR4-targeted therapies show promise for CTCL management, but challenges persist. Continued research aims to optimise treatments, enhance outcomes, and transform CTCL management. This review aims to elucidate the biological rationale and the several agents under various stages of development and clinical evaluation with the actual known data.

Cutaneous T cell lymphomas (CTCLs), encompassing mycosis fungoides (MF) and Sézary syndrome (SS), present a complex landscape influenced by cytokines and cellular responses. In this work, the intricate relationship between these inflammatory proteins and disease pathogenesis is examined, focusing on what is known at the clinical and therapeutic levels regarding the most well-known inflammatory mediators. An in-depth look is given to their possible alterations caused by novel immunomodulatory drugs and how they may alter disease progression. From this narrative review of the actual scientific landscape, Interferon-gamma (IFN-γ) emerges as a central player, demonstrating a dual role in both promoting and inhibiting cancer immunity, but the work navigates through all the major interleukins known in inflammatory environments. Immunotherapeutic perspectives are elucidated, highlighting the crucial role of the cutaneous microenvironment in shaping dysfunctional cell trafficking, antitumor immunity, and angiogenesis in MF, showcasing advancements in understanding and targeting the immune phenotype in CTCL. In summary, this manuscript aims to comprehensively explore the multifaceted aspects of CTCL, from the immunopathogenesis and cytokine dynamics centred around TNF-α and IFN-γ to evolving therapeutic modalities. Including all the major known and studied cytokines in this analysis broadens our understanding of the intricate interplay influencing CTCL, paving the way for improved management of this complex lymphoma.

Background: Given that the temporal bone is one of the most complex regions of the human body, cadaveric dissection of this anatomical area represents the first necessary step for the learning and training of the young oto-surgeon in order to perform middle ear surgery, which includes the management of inflammatory pathology, hearing rehabilitation, and also cognitive decline prevention surgery. The primary objective of this study was to identify common mistakes and critical passages during the initial steps of temporal bone dissection, specifically cortical mastoidectomy and posterior tympanotomy., Methods: A survey among 100 ENT residents was conducted, gathering insights into the most prevalent errors encountered during their training to uncover the most challenging aspects faced by novice surgeons during these procedures., Results: The most common mistakes included opening the dura of the middle cranial fossa (MCF), injury of the sigmoid sinus (SS), chorda tympani (CT), and facial nerve (FN) injury while performing the posterior tympanotomy. The most important critical steps to prevent mistakes are related to the absence of wide exposure during cortical mastoidectomy and the consequent impossibility of identifying the landmarks of the facial recess before performing posterior tympanotomy. Injury of these structures was more common in younger surgeons and in the ones who performed less than five temporal bone dissection courses., Conclusions: Numerous temporal bone dissections on cadavers are mandatory for ENT residents looking forward to performing middle ear surgery.

Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL) is characterized by an inflammatory background in which the reactive myeloid cells may exert an immune-suppressive effect related to the progression of the disease. Immunoglobulin M is the first antibody isotype produced during an immune response, which also plays an immunoregulatory role. Therefore, we investigated if, as a surrogate of defective B cell function, it could have any clinical impact on prognosis. In this retrospective, observational, single-center study, we evaluated 212 newly diagnosed HL patients, including 132 advanced-stage. A 50 mg/dL level of IgM at baseline resulted in 84.1% sensitivity and 45.5% specificity for predicting a complete response in the whole cohort (area under curve (AUC) = 0.62, p = 0.013). In multivariate analysis, baseline IgM ≤ 50 mg/dL and the presence of a large nodal mass (<7 cm) were independent variables able to predict the clinical outcome, while, after two cycles of treatment, IgM ≤ 50 mg/dL at baseline and PET-2 status were independent predictors of PFS. The amount of IgM at diagnosis is a valuable prognostic factor much earlier than PET-2, and it can also provide information for PET-2-negative patients. This can help to identify different HL classes at risk of treatment failure at baseline.

Objectives: The aim of this prospective study was to investigate the role of procalcitonin as an early diagnostic marker of pharyngocutaneous fistula (PCF) in a cohort of head and neck patients treated with total laryngectomy for squamous cell carcinoma., Methods: This prospective study was conducted on a sample of patients enrolled from January 2019 to March 2022. All patients were subjected to a "protocol" of blood chemistry investigations, scheduled as follows: complete blood count with formula, ESR dosage, CPR, and PCT. PCT was also dosed by salivary sampling and a pharyngo-cutaneous swab in patients who presented with PCF. The dosage scheme was systematically repeated: the day before the intervention (t0); the 5th day postoperative (t1); the 20th day postoperative (t2); and at time X, the day of the eventual appearance of the pharyngocutaneous fistula., Results: A total of 36 patients met the inclusion criteria. The patients enrolled in the study were subsequently divided into two groups: 27 patients underwent total laryngectomy (TL) for laryngeal cancer without postoperative complications, and 9 patients were undergoing TL with postoperative PCF. Using the Cochran's Q test, statistical significance was found for PCT among T0, T1, Tx, and T2 ( p -value < 0.001) between the PCF and non-PCF groups. The Z test demonstrated that there is a difference in PCT levels at T1 and T2 and that this difference is statistically significant ( p < 0.001)., Conclusions: PCT could be considered an early marker of complications in open laryngeal surgery. According to our results, it could be useful in the precocious detection of pharyngocutaneous fistulas and in the management of antibiotic therapy.

The production and use of nanomaterials (NMs) has increased over the last decades posing relevant questions on their risk after release and exposure of the population or sub-populations. In this context, the safe and sustainable by design (SSbD) approach framework requires to assess the potential hazard connected with intrinsic properties of the material along the whole life cycle of the NM and/or of the nano enabled products. Moreover, in the last years, the use of new advanced methodologies (NAMs) has increasingly gained attention for the use of alternative methods in obtaining relevant information on NMs hazard and risk. Considering the SSbD and the NAMs frameworks, within the ASINA H2020 project, we developed new NAMs devoted at improving the hazard and risk definition of different Ag and TiO2 NPs. The NAMs are developed considering two air liquid interface exposure systems, the Vitrocell Cloud-α and the Cultex Compact module and the relevant steps to obtain reproducible exposures are described. The new NAMs build on the integration of environmental monitoring campaigns at nano-coating production sites, allowing the quantification by the multiple-path particle dosimetry (MPPD) model of the expected lung deposited dose in occupational settings. Starting from this information, laboratory exposures to the aerosolized NPs are performed by using air liquid interface exposure equipment and human alveolar cells (epithelial cells and macrophages), replicating the doses of exposure estimated in workers by MPPD. Preliminary results on cell viability and inflammatory responses are reported. The proposed NAMs may represent possible future reference procedures for assessing the NPs inhalation toxicology, supporting risk assessment at real exposure doses., Competing Interests: Declaration of Competing Interest The authors declare the following financial interests/personal relationships which may be considered as potential competing interests: All authors reports financial support was provided by European CommissionASINA (Anticipating Safety Issues at the Design Stage of Nano Product Development)European Project (H2020-GA 862444). All authors reports a relationship with European Commission ASINA (Anticipating Safety Issues at the Design Stage of Nano Product Development)) European Project (H2020-GA 862444) that includes: funding grants. If there are other authors, they declare that they have no known competing financial interests or personal relationships that could have appeared to influence the work reported in this paper., (Copyright © 2024 The Authors. Published by Elsevier Ltd.. All rights reserved.)

Background: The aim of the current study is to measure the prevalence and the potential role of International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) score as a predictor of obstructive sleep apnea syndrome (OSAS) in male experienced lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS)., Methods: A cross-sectional web-based Italian survey was administered via Google Forms between July 17 and October 31, 2022. The urinary functioning was measured through the IPSS questionnaire. Specifically, we considered symptoms occurring more than "about half the time" (score ≥ 3) as bothering symptoms. Multivariable logistic regression models (LRMs) adjusting for age, body mass index (BMI), International Index of Erectile Function-5, IPSS, and hypertension were fitted to predict OSAS in the cohort of men responding to the survey and experiencing LUTS., Results: Overall, 58 (24.4%) patients had a confirmed diagnosis of OSAS. The overall median IPSS was 5 (inter quartile range [IQR]: 3-8), respectively. According to IPSS items, 24 (10%), 44 (18.4%), 12 (5%), 12 (5%), 12 (5%), 11 (4.6%), 63 (26.4%) patients exhibit incomplete bladder emptying, urinary frequency, intermittency, urgency, weak stream, straining, nocturia with a score ≥ 3, respectively. After multivariable LRMs predicting the developing OSAS, age (odds ratio [OR]: 1.09, p < 0.001), BMI (OR:1.12, p < 0.001) and IPSS total score (OR:1.08, p = 0.02) were independent predicting factors., Conclusion: This analysis revealed that the IPSS total score, age, and BMI are independent predictors of OSAS in males. In this context, the use of IPSS in daily practice could be helpful in assessing the LUTS presence and in supporting physicians to identify a hidden sleep apnea condition., (© 2023 Wiley Periodicals LLC.)