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MicroRNAs (miRNA) are important regulators of oocyte maturation, playing a key role in modulating gene expression both in a temporal- and spatial-specific manner. These small non-coding RNAs are involved in important processes during oocyte maturation, acting as messengers between the oocyte and its surrounding cumulus cells. Despite its significance, the bidirectional communication mechanism is still unknown. To test miRNA communication between oocyte and surrounding cumulus cells through the gap junctions the gap junctions were either blocked with carbenoxolone or not. MiRNA sequencing of oocytes at 1, 6, and 22 h of in vitro maturation was then performed. Among the differentially expressed miRNAs, bta-miR-21-5p, a regulator of cumulus cell viability and oocyte maturation, was the only previously known miRNA. Furthermore, by labeling a bta-miR-21-5p mimic with FAM, crossing of this miRNA through the gap junctions within the cumulus-oocyte complex could be visualized and internalization in the oocyte was confirmed by RT-qPCR. In conclusion, this study provides, for the first time, evidence that miRNA communication within the bovine cumulus-oocyte complex is enabled through the gap junctional network. [ABSTRACT FROM AUTHOR]

Background: Within the follicular fluid, extracellular vesicles (EVs) guide oocyte growth through their cargo microRNAs (miRNAs). Here, we investigated the role of EVs and their cargo miRNAs by linking the miRNAs found in EVs, derived from the fluid of an individual follicle, to the ability of its oocyte to become a blastocyst (competent) or not (non-competent)., Methods: Bovine antral follicles were dissected, categorized as small (2-4 mm) or large (5-8 mm) and the corresponding oocytes were subjected to individual maturation, fertilization and embryo culture to the blastocyst stage. Follicular fluid was pooled in 4 groups (4 replicates) based on follicle size and competence of the corresponding oocyte to produce a blastocyst. Follicular fluid-derived EVs were isolated, characterized, and subjected to miRNA-sequencing (Illumina Miseq) to assess differential expression (DE) in the 4 groups. Functional validation of the effect of miR-34c on embryo development was performed by supplementation of mimics and inhibitors during in vitro maturation (IVM)., Results: We identified 16 DE miRNAs linked to oocyte competence when follicular size was not considered. Within the large and small follicles, 46 DE miRNAs were driving blastocyst formation in each group. Comparison of EVs from competent small and large follicles revealed 90 DE miRNAs. Cell regulation, cell differentiation, cell cycle, and metabolic process regulation were the most enriched pathways targeted by the DE miRNAs from competent oocytes. We identified bta-miR-34c as the most abundant in follicular fluid containing competent oocytes. Supplementation of miR-34c mimic and inhibitor during IVM did not affect embryo development. However, blastocyst quality, as evidenced by higher cell numbers, was significantly improved following oocyte IVM in the presence of miR-34c mimics, while miR-34c inhibitors resulted in the opposite effect., Conclusion: This study demonstrates the regulatory effect of miRNAs from follicular fluid-derived EVs on oocyte competence acquisition, providing a further basis for understanding the significance of miRNAs in oocyte maturation and embryonic development. Up-regulation of miR-34c in EVs from follicular fluid containing competent oocytes and the positive impact of miR-34c mimics added during IVM on the resulting blastocysts indicate its pivotal role in oocyte competence., (© 2024. The Author(s).)

Background : Late-onset retinal degeneration (L-ORD) is a rare autosomal dominant retinal dystrophy related to C1QTNF5 gene variants. Materials and methods : Twenty-six patients (21-81 years) with L-ORD due to c.562C>A p.(Pro188Thr) with a mean follow-up time of 8 years (range 1-37 years) underwent an extensive ophthalmic work-up. Results : Best-corrected visual acuity (BCVA) and visual fields were maintained up to 50 to 55 years (n = 8), with a gradual decline, but conservation of functional central vision between 55 to 65 years (n = 15), followed by a steep decrease in overall visual function beyond 65 years (n = 9). Classic anterior segment findings in L-ORD of abnormally long, anteriorly inserted lens zonules were absent in most patients (n = 24/26). In contrast, findings of iris transillumination and sphincter pupillae atrophy with poor dilation were novel. Patients presented with three completely different initial fundus phenotypes: adjoining pavingstone-like atrophic patches (type 1) (n = 6/20); tiny yellow-white subretinal dots (type 2) (n = 8/20); or larger yellow, thick, round sub-RPE drusenoid deposits (type 3) (n = 4/20). Two patients had a mixed phenotype. Although different in presentation phenotype, patients eventually all progressed to a common panretinal atrophy with diffuse intraretinal pigment migration beyond the age of 65. Progression pace, and thus visual prognosis, differed depending on presentation phenotype. Specifically, type 2 appears to have a more benign course. Conclusions : Phenotypic analysis showed three distinct presenting phenotypes with a considerable intrafamilial variability both in age of onset of clinical signs and in disease progression, with a fair visual potential (>20/40) until the seventh decade. Abbreviations: L-ORD: Late-onset retinal degeneration; C1QTNF5: complement 1Q tumor necrosis factor 5; OCT: Ocular coherence tomography; BCVA: Best-corrected visual acuity; RPE: Retinal pigment epithelium; ffERG: Full-field electroretinography; IRD: Inherited retinal dystrophy; CNV: Choroidal neovascularization; LAZ: Long anteriorly inserted zonules; AMPK: AMP-activated protein kinase; IOP: Intraocular pressure; cSLO: confocal scanning laser ophthalmoscopy; BAF: Blue light autofluorescence; NIR-AF: Near-infrared autofluorescence; NIR-R: Near-infrared reflectance; RF: Red-free; SD-OCT: Spectral domain ocular coherence tomography; HRR: Hardy-Rand-Rittler pseudo-isochromatic plates; AS: anterior segment; UBM: ultrasound biomicroscopy; PCR: Polymerase chain reaction; SNP: Single nucleotide polymorphism; VEGF: Vascular endothelial growth factor; IZ: Interdigitation zone; EZ: Ellipsoid zone; ELM: External limiting membrane; LP: Light perception; AMD: Age-related macular degeneration; SFD: Sorsby fundus dystrophy.

Identification of factors associated with the quality and quantity of colostrum production has always been a major challenge in cattle industry. In purebred double-muscled Belgian Blue (BB) cows, parturition is mainly performed by elective caesarean section (CS; >90%). However, the CS itself may influence colostrum production characteristics. The present study aimed to evaluate the impact of maternal and newborn calf factors and the duration of the procedure of CS on the quality and quantity of colostrum production in BB cows. The dataset includes 551 records of cow-calf pairs that were presented for an elective CS at the Ghent University veterinary clinic between 2017 and 2019. The quality (measured via a colostrum densimeter) and the quantity (measured via a standard volume scale) of colostrum were measured within 30 min after the end of the CS. Fixed effects were fitted in mixed linear regression models to test for their potential association with colostrum quality (specific gravity; SG) and quantity (liters), and generalized mixed-effects models were constructed to test the associations of fixed effects with the optimal colostrum production index (yes vs no) based on an adequate supply of both colostrum quality and quantity. The fixed effects tested were parity, the gender of the calf, birth weight, duration of CS (min), and season of birth. Our results show that parity (primiparity), duration of CS (longer CS), and calving season (summer) had a significantly negative impact on colostrum production. Concluding, both colostrum quality and quantity can be influenced by intrinsic and extrinsic factors (including duration of CS), which should be considered while feeding newborn calves delivered via CS., Competing Interests: Declarations of competing interest None., (Copyright © 2021 Elsevier Inc. All rights reserved.)

Background: The southern African yellow dog tick, Haemaphysalis elliptica, occurs in eastern and southern Africa and adults infest domestic and wild carnivores. This tick species is also a vector of the highly virulent Babesia rossi pathogen, the causative agent of canine babesiosis in sub-Saharan Africa. Sustained high levels of efficacy of a parasiticide are not only important in protecting dogs against the direct effects of tick infestation, but also in reducing the risk of tick-borne diseases. Sarolaner (Simparica™ chewable tablets) has been reported to be effective against the major tick species infesting dogs in Europe and the USA, including representatives from the genera Amblyomma, Ixodes, Rhipicephalus and Dermacentor. Until now no efficacy evaluations have been reported against species of the genus Haemaphysalis. The objective of the study was to confirm the efficacy of a single 2 mg sarolaner/kg oral dose of Simparica™ against induced infestations with H. (R.) elliptica, an important parasite of dogs in southern Africa., Methods: This blinded, randomised, single centre, placebo controlled efficacy study followed a parallel group design and was conducted on two groups consisting of eight purpose-bred dogs each. Animals were treated orally, once on Day 0, with either a placebo compound (Group 1) or Simparica™ (Group 2). Simparica™ was administered orally at a dose rate of 2 mg sarolaner/kg body weight. The dogs were infested with ticks on Days - 7, - 2, 5, 12, 19, 26 and 33, with removal counts conducted on Days - 5, 2, 7, 14, 21, 28 and 35., Results: A single oral administration of Simparica™ (sarolaner) at a minimum dose of 2 mg/kg resulted in a 100% efficacy against existing infestations of H. (R.) elliptica on dogs and a 100% reduction in live ticks following weekly re-infestations for 35 days. Moreover, the immediate and persistent high levels of efficacy observed in this study for 35 days is consistent with those observed in previous studies against ticks in other genera., Conclusions: The efficacy of sarolaner (Simparica™), administered orally to dogs at the minimum label dose of 2.0 mg/kg, was demonstrated against existing and weekly re-infestations of H. (R.) elliptica for at least 5 weeks. Efficacy of 100% was achieved against existing infestations as well as weekly re-infestations.

Background: Canine babesiosis is a clinically significant emerging vector-borne disease caused among others by the protozoan Babesia canis. The efficacy of sarolaner (Simparica®; Zoetis; at the minimum recommended label dose of 2.0 mg per kg bodyweight) in the prevention of babesiosis was evaluated in twenty-four dogs randomly allocated to either a placebo-treated group or one of two sarolaner-treated groups. At 21 or 28 days after treatment administration, dogs were infested with 50 ± 4 Dermacentor reticulatus ticks of which 25% were confirmed to be infected with Babesia canis. Blood samples were collected from each dog prior to tick infestation and weekly thereafter until 49 days after infestation. The blood was assayed for B. canis antibodies using an indirect immunofluorescence test (IFAT) and for B. canis DNA by PCR assay. A dog was a priori defined as B. canis-positive if it tested positive by both IFAT and PCR at any time during the study., Results: No treatment-related adverse reactions were recorded during the study. All placebo-treated animals displayed clinical signs due to babesiosis and tested positive on both IFAT and PCR. None of the sarolaner-treated animals displayed any clinical symptoms or tested positive on both IFAT and PCR, resulting in a 100% efficacy in the prevention of canine babesiosis (P = 0.0002)., Conclusion: When given 21 or 28 days before tick infestation, a single treatment with sarolaner at the minimum recommended label dose of 2.0 mg per kg body weight prevented the transmission of B. canis by D. reticulatus to dogs.