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We give a counterexample in this amendment to show that there is an error in consideration of the statement "if f: X → Y and J is an ideal on Y, then f-1(J) = ff-1(J): J ℇ J- is an ideal on X" by Hamlett in his paper "Lindelöf with respect to an ideal" [New Zealand J. Math. 42, 115-120, 2012]. We also modify it here in a new way and henceforth put forward correctly all the results that were based on the said statement derived therein. [ABSTRACT FROM AUTHOR]